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By drawing water into a chamber in its large claw and then snapping the claw shut, a pistol shrimp can produce bubbles that, when popped, create a powerful shockwave that stuns nearby prey. However, these shockwaves do not harm the shrimp themselves, which hide in burrows, waiting to stun fish and other crustaceans. To explain this phenomenon, scientist Alexandra Kingston and colleagues studied pistol shrimp and noted that these shrimp have an orbital hood, a helmet-like exoskeleton covering their brain. Finding the feature unique to snapping shrimp, Kingston hypothesized that they are protected from shockwave trauma by their orbital hoods, leaving them unaffected by the damaging sound.

Which finding, if true, would most directly undermine Kingston’s hypothesis?

  1. Pistol shrimp with orbital hoods left intact quickly return to their burrows after they snap their large claw without catching any prey.
  2. Pistol shrimp whose orbital hoods were surgically removed are less disoriented than their prey after snapping because they are protected by their burrows.
  3. Pistol shrimp that have had their orbital hoods surgically removed are unaffected by the powerful shockwaves that stun the prey.
  4. Pistol shrimp that have had their orbital hoods left intact change the frequency and volume of their snaps depending on the type of prey.
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Determine what the hypothesis claims.  Then, check the answers to select the finding that undermines (contradicts) Kingston’s hypothesis.

The hypothesis proposes that pistol shrimp are protected from the shockwaves they create by their orbital hoods.  Showing that pistol shrimp were protected even when their hoods were removed would demonstrate that the hood doesn’t offer shockwave protection—it must come from something else.

One finding suggests that the orbital hoods don’t protect shrimp and contradicts the hypothesis: Pistol shrimp that have had their orbital hoods surgically removed are unaffected by the powerful shockwaves that stun the prey.

(Choice A)  After snapping to stun their prey, hooded pistol shrimp quickly returned to their burrows, which indicates that the shockwave didn’t affect them, supporting rather than undermining the hypothesis.

(Choice B)  The text describes pistol shrimp being unaffected by their shockwaves but doesn’t state that the shrimp are less disoriented by their shockwaves when they are hiding in burrows.

(Choice D)  The shrimp changing their snaps depending on the prey they spot wouldn’t explain whether their orbital hoods protect shrimp from shockwaves.

Things to remember:
Information that undermines a theory will contradict what the hypothesis claims.

The Cretaceous period ended 66 million years ago, presumably when an asteroid hit the Earth, causing the extinction of dinosaurs. Paleontologists Kyle Atkins-Weltman and Eric Snively examined three bones of what they thought was a juvenile specimen of a caenagnathid—an already known species of dinosaur from this time period—in order to assess its maturity and found their specimen was an adult dinosaur from a completely different species. Atkins-Weltman and Snively claim that there could be even more dinosaur species that have yet to be discovered—potentially even through re-examination and reclassification of fossils already in museum collections.

Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken Atkins-Weltman’s and Snively’s claim?

  1. Additional caenagnathid bones are examined by other paleontologists who state that some of these bones have not been correctly classified.
  2. Paleontologists reexamine a large number of previously catalogued dinosaur bones only to find that all of the species have been identified correctly.
  3. Paleontologists agree that dinosaur species were in decline during the Cretaceous period despite the discovery of Atkins-Weltman and Snively.
  4. Paleontologists determine that another method of identifying dinosaur species is more accurate than analyzing fossilized bones.
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Choice B is correct.  Atkins-Weltman and Snively asserted that more dinosaur species could be discovered by looking closely at fossils in museums and changing the classification if they are incorrect.  One way to weaken this assertion would be to analyze the categorized fossils, only to discover that they have been classified correctly.

Opera recitatives—singing styles delivered like ordinary speech—include recitativo secco, lines accompanied by just a few instruments, and recitativo accompagnato, lines accompanied by the entire orchestra.  In Mozart’s opera The Marriage of Figaro, the recitativo secco sections advance the plot by allowing the lyrics to be the focus, whereas the recitativo accompagnato sections emphasize the characters’ feelings.  But musical scholar Charles Rosen argued that recitatives like these are not the only methods that Mozart incorporated to convey the opera’s drama; ensemblessonata sections, and musical key changes also build story tension.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  1. Musical scholar Charles Rosen reasoned that orchestration and lyrics are equally necessary to an opera’s success and provided examples of the effect created by Mozart’s musical arrangement.
  2. Musical scholar Charles Rosen claimed that the drama in the Marriage of Figaro is revealed through important musical elements that go beyond recitative styles.
  3. Operas that vary the number of instruments based on plot and character development are more difficult to understand than operas without these musical variations.
  4. will be The musical elements utilized in The Marriage of Figaro may seem unnecessarily complex, but they can be easily recognized when two terms are fully explained.
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To determine the main idea, summarize each sentence and then create one statement that includes all the information in the text.  Then, select the answer with a similar idea.

S1 Explains that the recitativo secco uses only a few instruments, whereas the whole orchestra accompanies a recitativo accompagnato.
S2 Discusses how, in The Marriage of Figaro, the recitativo secco sections focus on lyrics that tell the story, whereas the recitativo accompagnato portions reveal the emotions of the characters.
S3 Lists specific elements other than recitatives that Rosen argues Mozart used to show the story’s dramatic elements.

Summary statement:  According to Rosen, Mozart used not only recitatives but also other musical elements to reveal the dramatic events in The Marriage of Figaro.

Answer with a similar idea: Musical scholar Charles Rosen claimed that the drama in the Marriage of Figaro is revealed through important musical elements that go beyond recitative styles.

(Choice A)  Rosen’s argument relates to aspects of orchestration, but not lyrics.  Also, the text never discusses what is needed to make an opera successful.

(Choice C)  The text doesn’t state whether the amount of musical variation in operas affects the difficulty of understanding them.

(Choice D)  The text explains more than just recognizing the two types of recitatives.  It also provides information about how these and other elements contribute to an opera’s overall story.  So, this answer gives only part of the information provided in the text.

Things to remember:
The correct answer to a question about the text’s main idea will be an accurate statement based on what is discussed throughout that text.

The following text is adapted from Henry Wadsworth Longfellow’s 1879 poem “The Cross of Snow.”

In the long, sleepless watches of the night,

  A gentle face — the face of one long dead —

  Looks at me from the wall, where round its head

  The night-lamp casts a halo of pale light.

Here in this room she died; and soul more white

  Never through martyrdom of fire was led

  To its [rest]; nor can in books be read

  The legend of a life more [blessed].

What is the main idea of the text?

  1. The speaker is remembering a beloved’s life after seeing her image.
  2. The speaker is too saddened to focus on a beloved’s features.
  3. The speaker is agitated and imagines the ghost of a beloved in the room.
  4. The speaker is restless and concerned about a beloved’s reputation.
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Paraphrase the ideas in the poem’s lines.  Then summarize the ideas of the poem’s sentences and choose the answer with an idea like your summary.

Paraphrased Lines
S1 At night when I can’t sleep
the gentle face of a woman who died long ago
gazes at me from the wall, and around her head
is a halo of light created by the lamp.
S2 She died in this room, with a soul purer
than any other holy person who has died;
no books tell the story
of a more blessed person.
Summary The speaker describes an image of a woman and is reminded of her life.

One answer includes an idea like the summary statement: The speaker is remembering a beloved’s life after seeing her image.

(Choice B)  The speaker does focus on the woman’s features, saying she had a “gentle face” and appears to have a halo around her head.  The speaker’s emotions are not described in the poem.

(Choice C)  The speaker describes a deceased woman, but the poem doesn’t describe the speaker’s state of mind or suggest that the woman is a ghost.

(Choice D)  The speaker describes a “sleepless” night and isn’t resting, but there is no indication that the speaker is concerned about the reputation of a good woman characterized by a “gentle face” and holiness.

Things to remember:
Paraphrase the lines of the poem to determine its main idea.

The following text is adapted from Mary Shelley’s 1818 novel Frankenstein.  The unnamed creature made by Victor Frankenstein reflects on his characteristics.

I was, besides, endued with a figure hideously deformed and loathsome; I was not even of the same nature as man. I was more agile than they and could subsist upon coarser diet; I bore the extremes of heat and cold with less injury to my frame; my stature far exceeded theirs. When I looked around I saw and heard of none like me. Was I, then, a monster, a blot upon the earth, from which all men fled and whom all men disowned?

According to the text, what is true about the creature?

  1. He wishes for the pleasure of human companionship.
  2. He is aware of how his differences may isolate him from others.
  3. He chooses a solitary life over human relationship.
  4. He takes pride in his physical superiority over humans.
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Paraphrase the answer choices, compare each answer to the text, and select the one that is supported by specific details in the passage.

(Choice A)  He desires the pleasure of human company. Because the text doesn’t express the creature’s desires, it offers no evidence to support this answer.
(Choice B)  He knows that his differences might cut him off from others. The creature refers to himself as “hideously deformed and loathsome,” so different that he “saw and heard of none” like himself.  He questions whether his non-human features will result in “all men” rejecting or disowning him, which shows his awareness that he will likely be an outcast.
(Choice C)  He chooses to be alone rather than with others. The creature discusses that he will be rejected by humanity, but the text does not refer to him making a choice to be alone.
(Choice D)  His physical qualities bring him satisfaction and self-respect. The creature discusses his physical superiority, but he goes on to question whether he is “a monster, a blot upon the earth,” rather than speaking about them with a sense of pride.

Things to remember:
Paraphrase the answer choices to find the one that is supported by details in the passage.

Grammar & Usage: Build confidence with SAT Writing practice questions that test grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure. Create your own SAT Writing practice tests to strengthen the skills you’ll need on exam day.

Stephanie Jenouvrier of the Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution studied how ______ According to her 2021 research, emperor penguin chicks had an increased chance of drowning when they found fewer solid surfaces on which to rest after swimming.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  1. do emperor penguins depend on sea ice.
  2. do emperor penguins depend on sea ice?
  3. emperor penguins depend on sea ice?
  4. emperor penguins depend on sea ice.
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Look at the sentence structure before the blank to determine whether a question or statement is needed to complete the sentence.

Question structure:  Helping verb + noun + verb + dependent clause?

Ex. Did Karlton research how whales sleep?

Statement structure:  Noun + verb + dependent clause.

Ex. Karlton researched how whales sleep.

“How” sometimes begins a question, but when it follows a statement, it begins a dependent clause that should place the noun before the verb.

Because there is no helping verb before the noun “Stephanie Jenouvrier,” the sentence is a statement, and what follows “how” is a dependent clause that completes the statement.  Therefore, the correct answer will place the noun before the verb and end with a period: emperor penguins depend on sea ice.

(Choice A)  Placing the noun “emperor penguins” between the helping verb “do” and the verb “depend” is the structure for a question, not a statement.

(Choice B)  A question can’t complete a sentence that begins as a statement.

(Choice C)  The sentence begins with a statement, and having the noun “emperor penguins” before the verb “depend” is the structure for a statement, so a period, not a question mark, is needed.

Things to remember:
When “how” follows a statement, it begins a dependent clause that will place the subject before the verb; the sentence will end with a period.

With more than 2,000 acts, the music festival South By ______ or SXSW, as the annual event is more frequently called—has grown in scope and size every year since 1987. SXSW attracts people from all over the US to Austin, Texas, for a weeklong celebration of creativity in music.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  1. Southwest—
  2. Southwest:
  3. Southwest,
  4. Southwest
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Rule:  A mid-sentence interruption should have the same punctuation—either two commas, two dashes, or a pair of parentheses—before and after it.

Each answer choice uses different punctuation, so look at the punctuation already in the sentence and determine what additional punctuation is required, if any.

The nonessential information about what the festival is commonly called is not required for the sentence to make sense or to be grammatically correct.  Therefore, this information, placed between the subject and the verb, is a mid-sentence interruption that should be set apart from the sentence with matching punctuation before and after it.

The sentence includes a dash AFTER the mid-sentence interruption.  Therefore, a dash should also be placed BEFORE the interrupting phrase to set it apart from the rest of the sentence, making Southwest— correct.

(Choice B)  A colon before the interruption would not match the dash after the interruption, and colons are never used in pairs to set apart a mid-sentence interruption.

(Choice C)  Although a comma follows “SXSW,” this information is part of the interruption between the subject and main verb.  Therefore, a comma after “Southwest” isn’t required and wouldn’t match the dash used after “called” to set apart the interruption.

(Choice D)  The mid-sentence interruption should be separated by the same punctuation before and after it—this answer lacks the dash needed to match the second dash following the phrase.

Things to remember:
Use the same punctuation before and after a mid-sentence interruption.

Originally from the West African country of Sierra Leone, Michaela DePrince _____ in the 2011 ballet documentary First Position and performed professionally with the Harlem Dance Theater when she joined the Dutch National Ballet Company in 2013 at the age of 18, becoming the company’s only dancer of African origin at the time.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  1. had already appeared
  2. was already appearing
  3. already appeared
  4. already appears
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Rule:  Use past perfect tense to show an action completed before another action or point in the past.

To choose the correct verblook for clues in the sentence—like dates, other verbs, and time-order words—to determine the sequence of events.

The past tense verbs “performed” and “joined” are clues that the action referred to in the blank also occurred in the past, and the time-order words “already” and “when” indicate a sequence of events: DePrince’s documentary appearance happened in 2011, before she joined the Dutch National Ballet in 2013.

Therefore, because both actions happened in the past but the documentary appearance happened earlier in the past, the correct answer is the past perfect tense, had already appeared.

(Choice B)  “Was already appearing” inaccurately suggests that the documentary, which was completed in 2011, was still being filmed when DePrince joined the ballet company in 2013.

(Choice C)  The past tense (“appeared”) is incorrect because it doesn’t specify when the action happened in relation to other past events.  The word “already” indicates the action was completed before something else, so the past perfect tense (“had appeared”) is required to fit the specific sequence.

(Choice D)  “Appears” is present tense, but the documentary was made in the past, in 2011.

Things to remember:
Use past perfect tense to show that one past action or event happened before another.

Brazilian photojournalist Claudia _____ her work to give viewers a sense of how shamanic spirituality is infused throughout the indigenous Yanomami culture, uses unconventional techniques to create distortions and streaks of color that give her photographs a mystical feel.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  1. Andujar, wanting
  2. Andujar, wants
  3. Andujar wants
  4. Andujar is wanting
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Rule:  A single comma may not be used between a subject and its verb, but a pair of commas may be used to set off nonessential information that describes a subject before the verb appears.

Examine the punctuation in the sentence and identify the subject and main verb to determine what should be placed in the blank.

The comma after “culture” is followed by the main verb “uses.”  The verb’s subject, “Claudia Andujar,” appears earlier in the sentence.  Because a main verb cannot be separated from its subject by a single comma, another comma must appear in the blank to set off the interrupting nonessential information.

Participles can describe nouns and thus can begin nonessential information set off by commas, so the correct answer is Andujar, wanting.

(Choice B)  The comma in this choice is followed by a main verb (“wants”) rather than a participle.  The only possible subject for this verb is “Claudia Andujar,” but a subject and verb may not be separated by a single comma, making this choice incorrect.

(Choices C and D)  These choices insert a main verb immediately following the subject “Claudia Andujar.”  Because this subject already has a main verb (“uses”) later in the sentence, the presence of another main verb would require the conjunction “and” in place of the comma before “uses.”  Because the sentence doesn’t include a conjunction there, these choices are incorrect.

Things to remember:
A verb cannot be separated from its subject by a single comma.

Based on discoveries of animal remains in the graves of ancient humans, many archaeologists have long believed that preserving dead animals was secondary to preserving the remains of people. Since discovering the world’s oldest pet cemetery, ______ were important enough to warrant their own memorials.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  1. a zooarchaeology team led by Marta Osypinska has asserted that pets
  2. Marta Osypinska and her zooarchaeology team’s assertion is that pets
  3. pets, a zooarchaeology team led by Marta Osypinska has asserted,
  4. the assertion that a zooarchaeology team led by Marta Osypinska has made is that pets
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Rule:  The first noun or noun phrase after introductory information containing a participle should be able to do the action described by the participle.

Note the function of the sentence’s punctuation: the sentence contains a comma after “cemetery,” which indicates that “Since…cemetery” is introductory information.

The introductory information contains the participle “discovering,” so the first noun or noun phrase that follows “cemetery” must be the person or group who did the “discovering.”

Because “a zooarchaeology team” is a noun phrase that refers to who discovered the cemetery, the correct answer is a zooarchaeology team led by Marta Osypinska has asserted that pets.

(Choice B)  Although this answer begins with “Marta Osypinska,” the apostrophe in “team’s” indicates possession of “assertion.”  That means the phrase “Marta…and her…team’s” functions as an adjective describing the assertion.  Therefore, the first noun is not “Marta,” but “assertion,” and an assertion couldn’t have discovered anything.

(Choice C)  This answer begins with the noun “pets,” but it wasn’t pets who discovered the oldest pet cemetery.

(Choice D)  This answer begins with the noun “assertion,” but an assertion doesn’t have the ability to discover a pet cemetery.

Things to remember:
When introductory information contains a participle, the first noun or noun phrase that follows that information must be able to complete the action described by the participle.

Mixed Skills: Work through a balanced set of SAT Reading and Writing practice questions covering grammar, transitions, logical connections, and text analysis. This set mirrors the SAT Reading and Writing practice test format.

In 1912, during the First Balkan War, Milunka Savić chopped off her hair and dressed in men’s clothing to join the Serbian army disguised as her brother, who was sick with tuberculosis. _______ Savić proved to be a skilled soldier and eventually became—after her true identity was discovered in 1913—the most decorated female in world military history.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  1. Subsequently,
  2. Likewise,
  3. Nevertheless,
  4. Furthermore,
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Transitions help show the specific relationship between sentences.

Examine the information before and after the blank to determine the relationship between the sentences.  Then, choose the conjunctive adverb that expresses that relationship.

The first sentence provides details about how Savić joined the army as a woman.  The second sentence reveals that she was awarded many medals after joining the army.  The correct answer will indicate this sequence of events.

“Subsequently” refers to events that came after another.  Because it refers to the events in the second sentence occurring after the events in the first sentence, subsequently, is correct.

(Choice B)  “Likewise” indicates a similarity between two ideas.  This answer doesn’t work because the second sentence states that Savić was highly decorated as a soldier, which isn’t similar to the first sentence’s description of her joining the army.

(Choice C)  “Nevertheless” signals that something is happening despite another thing.  The second sentence reveals that Savić earned her medals because she joined the army, not in spite of joining.

(Choice D)  “Furthermore” shows an idea that is related and an addition to the idea that precedes it.  The idea presented in the second sentence indicates what happened after Savić joined the army; it is not an additional detail describing how she became a soldier.

Things to remember:
The correct answer will reflect the relationship between the ideas in the two sentences.

Data collected using the Juno spacecraft reveals that Jupiter itself may actually ______ the volcanoes that cover its moon Io.  According to astrophysicist Scott Bolton, the gravitational pull from Jupiter and two of its other moons continuously stretches and squeezes Io, a process which may cause the production of the lava that erupts through the moon’s surface to form volcanoes.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  1. create
  2. restrain
  3. shield
  4. install
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Look for information in the text that can help determine which word has a meaning that best completes the sentence.

Sentence 2 reveals that Io is stretched and squeezed by the gravitational pull from Jupiter and two other moons, potentially causing lava to be produced.  This wording indicates that Jupiter may be responsible for the existing volcanoes on Io.

Create = to bring something into existence.  Because the information supports the idea that competing gravitational pulls bring Io’s volcanoes into existence, the best answer to complete the text is create.

(Choice B)  Restrain = to prevent someone or something from doing something.  (Ex. Sally had to restrain herself from shouting at her younger brother.)  No details are provided that suggest Jupiter prevents Io’s volcanoes from doing anything.

(Choice C)  Shield = to protect someone or something.  (Ex. Julio used his notebook to shield his head from the rain.)  The text does not indicate that Jupiter protects Io and its volcanoes; instead, its gravitational pull stretches and squeezes Io.

(Choice D)  Install = to set up for use or service.  (Ex. Edna was unable to install the new software on her computer.)  The text does not include any information to suggest that Jupiter sets up the volcanoes already formed or that they exist for a particular use.

Things to remember:
Information in the text will hint at the missing word with a meaning that best completes the text.

Before the 1963 March on Washington, many women worked to ensure that their contributions to the civil rights movement were recognized at this event. Organizing committee member Anna Arnold Hedgeman advocated for a female speaker. ______ Dorothy Height persuaded the male organizers to let a woman deliver an address entitled “Tribute to Negro Women.”

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  1. In summary,
  2. Nevertheless,
  3. Likewise,
  4. For instance,
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Rule:  Transitions show the specific relationship between sentences.

Determine the relationship between the sentences before and after the blank.  Then, choose the transition with a meaning that indicates this relationship.

The sentences before and after the proposed transition relate similar ideas: each mentions a woman who wanted a female speaker at the March on Washington.  “Likewise” means similarly.  Because it has a meaning that shows the specific relationship between the two sentences, likewise, is the most logical transition.

(Choice A)  “In summary” is used to indicate that what follows is a brief overview of the previous point(s).  However, Height convincing men to let a woman give a speech is not a summary of Hedgeman’s idea to have a female speaker.

(Choice B)  “Nevertheless” indicates that a different idea follows.  Because both sentences focus on a similar idea of wanting a female speaker, a transition that highlights a difference would not correctly indicate this relationship.

(Choice D)  “For instance” indicates that a specific example follows to illustrate a previous general statement.  This transition isn’t appropriate because it would need to be followed by a specific example of what Hedgeman did to advocate for a female speaker, not a sentence about what Height did.

Things to remember:
Choose the transition that indicates the relationship between two sentences.

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • At the age of seven or eight, native West African Phillis Wheatley was sold into slavery to a wealthy merchant family in Boston.
  • She quickly learned to read and write, composing her first poem at age 14.
  • When she was 20, she had a book of poetry published in England.
  • This book is considered the first published poetry collection by an African American author.
  • These poems are still available for readers to view online or in print.

The student wants to emphasize what Wheatley achieved that made her a pioneer in American literature. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  1. After becoming the slave of a Boston merchant family, Wheatley learned to read and write.
  2. A native of West Africa, Wheatley composed her first poem when she was fourteen years old.
  3. The poems from the book Wheatley had published in England can still be found online and in print.
  4. Wheatley was the first African American to publish a book of poetry.
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Determine the key information from the question that must be located in the notes.  The correct answer choice will have details from the notes that support what the student wants to emphasize about the topic.

Based on the question, the key information that’s needed from the notes is which of Wheatley’s achievements speaks to her role as a pioneer (one of the first to do something) in American literature.  Although the notes mention several of Wheatley’s accomplishments, only the fact that she was the first African American to publish a book of poetry emphasizes her role as a pioneer in American literature.

The answer choice that emphasizes her accomplishments as a pioneer of American literature states that Wheatley was the first African American to publish a book of poetry.

(Choice A)  Although learning to read and write as a slave can be listed among her accomplishments, the notes don’t indicate that Wheatley was the first to do this nor how this would have had an effect on American literature.

(Choice B)  Because the notes don’t state that it was unusual for West African teenagers to write poetry, this answer doesn’t indicate that this was a pioneering achievement for Wheatley.

(Choice C)  The current availability of her work does not speak to her pioneering achievement as the first African American author to publish a book of poetry.

Things to remember:
Choose the answer with specific information related to what is referenced in the question.

Hard SAT Verbal Practice Questions: Challenge yourself with hard SAT verbal practice questions that combine reading comprehension and writing improvement. These questions help prepare you for the toughest items on the exam.

The following text is from Chandreyee Lahiri’s 2021 short story “Dumba Chora.” Sutapa describes her past to her new husband, Shekhar.

“Before our marriage…there was someone else.” She turned to face him purposefully, pinning him with an unusually hard stare. Shekhar turned away, towards the darkened jungle, more to break that unsettling look than for anything else.

As used in the text, what does the phrase “pinning him with” most nearly mean?

  1. Holding him under
  2. Freeing him from
  3. Supporting him in
  4. Guarding him with
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To determine the meaning of a phrase, read the context around the phrase for clues that indicate what the phrase means.

“Before our marriage…there was someone else.” She turned to face him purposefully, pinning him with an unusually hard stare. Shekhar turned away, towards the darkened jungle, more to break that unsettling look than for anything else.

The context indicates that Sutapa’s “hard stare” made Shekhar feel so uncomfortable he had to look away to “break” the hold of her gaze; therefore, as used in the text, the phrase “pinning him with” most nearly means holding him under.

(Choice B) Shekhar felt forced to look away from Sutapa to “break” her stare. It isn’t logical to say she was “freeing him from” her own stare if he had to turn away to free himself.

(Choice C) Sutapa’s “unsettling look” made Shekhar feel uncomfortable rather than supported.

(Choice D) A person might guard or protect someone who is vulnerable by watching him intently, but the context indicates Sutapa is telling Shekhar something difficult for him to hear, not trying to protect him.

Things to remember:
Look for context clues surrounding a phrase to determine what it means in the text.

The following text is adapted from Willa Cather’s 1902 short story “The Sculptor’s Funeral.” Steavens and other mourners are in a room with the coffin of Steavens’ dead friend.

“I think I’ll see whether I can get a little air. The room is so close I am beginning to feel rather faint,” murmured Steavens, struggling with one of the windows. The sash was stuck, however, and would not yield, so he sat down dejectedly and began pulling at his collar.

As used in the text, what does the phrase “struggling with” most nearly mean?

  1. Loosening up
  2. Toiling under
  3. Prying open
  4. Straining against
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To interpret the meaning of a phrase as used in a text, review the larger context for clues.

“I think I’ll see whether I can get a little air. The room is so close I am beginning to feel rather faint,” murmured Steavens, struggling with one of the windows. The sash was stuck, however, and would not yield, so he sat down dejectedly and began pulling at his collar.

Because Steavens is feeling overly warm in the room, he exerts effort to get the window to open so he can let in some fresh air; however, the sash (moveable part of the window) is “stuck…and would not yield.” The context indicates that opening the window is a difficult task. Therefore, as it is used in the text, the phrase “struggling with” most nearly means straining against.

(Choice A) The window sash “would not yield,” meaning it wouldn’t open even a little, implying Steavens is unable to loosen up the window enough to let in fresh air.

(Choice B) Although “toiling” means working extremely hard, it is unlikely that Steavens is “under” the window while he struggles to open it.

(Choice C) When something is pried open, it is moved with difficulty; however, “the sash was stuck…and would not yield” indicates that Steavens is unable to pry open the window.

Things to remember:
Examine the context in which a phrase appears to determine what the phrase most nearly means.

The following text is adapted from Hilda Conkling’s 1920 poem “Hills.”

The hills are going somewhere;
They have been on the way a long time.
They are like camels in a line
But they move more slowly.
Sometimes at sunset they carry silks,
But most of the time silver birch trees,
Heavy rocks, heavy trees, gold leaves
On heavy branches till they are aching…
Birches like silver bars they can hardly lift
With grass so thick about their feet to hinder
They have not gone far
In the time I’ve watched them…

Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?

  1. It discusses how the hills change from sunrise to sunset.
  2. It compares the hills’ features to treasures carried by pack animals.
  3. It describes the appearance of hills, then of a valley.
  4. It includes contrasting imagery of ancient rocks and young trees.
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A text’s structure is the way its overall content is organized, and the SAT answer choices often reference this content’s meaning.

Paraphrase the poem’s lines and consider what is discussed throughout the entire text. Then choose the answer that restates what is expressed about the subject.

Lines Paraphrase
1–2 The hills are taking a while to go somewhere.
3–4 The hills look like camels but move slower than these pack animals.
5–9 Sometimes they carry “silks,” but usually they carry heavier things like rocks and birch trees that are like “silver bars” with “gold leaves on heavy branches.”
10–12 The hills’ thick grass makes it hard for them to move, so they haven’t gone far while I’ve been watching.

The paraphrase, especially of lines 5–9, suggests that hills carry heavy items such as rocks and trees, just as camels carry valuable items like “silks,” “gold leaves,” and “silver bars.” In other words, regarding the poem’s structure, it compares the hills’ features to treasures carried by pack animals.

(Choice A) Sunset is mentioned in the poem, but sunrise is not; therefore, there is no discussion of how the hills change from the morning to the evening.

(Choice C) Although hills are described in the poem, valleys are not.

(Choice D)Line 7 describes rocks and then trees as “heavy,” but there is no mention of their ages. Also, information given in a single line of the poem doesn’t represent the overall structure of the text.

Things to remember:
A poem’s structure is determined by its content throughout the poem, so any answer with details not included in the poem or not representative of the poem as a whole is incorrect.

Political scientist James C. Scott’s research on peasant agrarian societies, primarily in southeast Asia, reveals that small communities often develop effective, self-governing systems to manage resources (instead of requiring state oversight). ______ Scott’s findings disclose the possibility of avoiding the “tyranny of control” that occurs when a centralized authority creates disorder by imposing rigid structures that fail to adapt to complex, changing conditions at the local level.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  1. Conversely,
  2. At first,
  3. For instance,
  4. In effect,
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Summarize the sentences before and after the missing transition and determine their relationship. Select the transition with a meaning that accurately shows that relationship.

S1 Research has shown that certain small farming communities are able to effectively handle their own resources instead of relying on the government.
S2 This research shows a way that communities can possibly avoid being harmed by a larger government that doesn’t understand their unique needs.

Relationship: The second sentence draws a practical conclusion from the idea in the first sentence.

In effect = essentially or for practical purposes. This transition is often used to introduce a result or consequence. The result of local farmers handling their own business is that these farmers avoid potential harms posed by government control. Therefore, the correct transition is in effect.

(Choice A) Conversely = in a contrasting or opposite way. These sentences state similar, rather than opposite, ideas.

(Choice B) At first = in the beginning. This transition is used to indicate the first in an order of events, but no sequence is indicated in these sentences.

(Choice C) For instance = as an example. The second sentence gives information related to the first, but it doesn’t provide a specific example of how the small farming communities have become self-reliant.

Things to remember:
Determine the relationship between the two sentences immediately before and after the missing transition. Then, choose a transition with a meaning that shows that relationship.

Ancient Chinese poetry draws on xing (興), a literary device in which imagery introduces a poem and sets the emotional or thematic tone. For instance, a poem might begin with “Osprey their mates are calling / On the islets in the stream,” not as a direct description but to evoke the loyal devotion and faithfulness of a married couple. This connotative mode of signification reflects a broader Chinese literary tendency to prioritize suggestion over assertion. The resonance between natural imagery and human feeling is central to Chinese poetics, in which a poem’s emotional power often unfolds through layered allusion rather than explicit statement.

Which statement about xing (興) is most strongly supported by the text?

  1. Its emotional power is based on the explicit meaning of the image used in xing.
  2. Its complex references to nature may cause the function of the image to be misunderstood by today’s audiences.
  3. Its implied meanings can be understood when the image is viewed through appropriate literary traditions.
  4. Its common usage in ancient Chinese poetry demonstrates its comprehensibility to the intended audience.
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Summarize the text’s ideas and choose the answer expressing the statement that has the most supporting evidence in the text.

S1 Xing uses an image to establish a poem’s tone.
S2 Instead of giving a straightforward description, the xing‘s discussion of ospreys signifies ideas that aren’t stated directly.
S3 Chinese literary tradition places more importance on suggested ideas than on stated ones.
S4 The connection xing forms between imagery and human emotion is important in Chinese poetry, in which meaning is suggested instead of directly stated.

The text describes a literary convention of Chinese poetry in which the suggested meaning of an image is more powerful than its direct description. Awareness of this feature helps readers to see xing‘s implied meaning.

Only the correct answer states an idea that is supported by the text’s information: Its implied meanings can be understood when the image is viewed through appropriate literary traditions.

(Choice A) The emotional power evoked by xing comes from an image’s suggested meaning, not the meaning that is directly stated.

(Choice B) Although xing relies on an image’s suggested ideas, the text doesn’t discuss whether present-day audiences would misunderstand xing‘s complex references to nature.

(Choice D) The text doesn’t discuss whether the common use of xing made ancient Chinese poetry easier for its intended audience to understand.

Things to remember:
Summarizing the text can help you determine which answer is most strongly supported by the text.

Data and Evidence Questions: Practice evidence-based Reading and Writing SAT questions that ask you to analyze charts, passages, and arguments. Strengthen your ability to find and apply supporting evidence quickly.

Growth rate

In a study on mutations in genes cusS and rho—genes that are involved in the bacteria E. coli‘s response to environmental stressors—researchers examined the resistance of several strains of E. coli to varying concentrations of silver nitrate, a naturally antibacterial substance.  Populations in the study included a wild-type strain with no mutations and two strains with the same mutation in cusS (C1) and differing mutations in rho (R1 and R2).  The strains were identified as CR, C1R1, and C1R2, respectively.  Together with previous findings that the C1 cusS mutation confers increased resistance to silver nitrate, data in the graph of growth rates suggest that ______

Which completion of the text is best supported by data in the graph?

  1. the R2 rho mutation is more effective on its own against silver nitrate than the C1 cusS mutation.
  2. the cusS gene provides resistance to high concentrations of silver nitrate, while the rho gene provides resistance regardless of concentration.
  3. the R2 mutation in rho may increase the effectiveness of the C1 cusS mutation when concentrations of silver nitrate are high.
  4. E. coli‘s resistance to silver nitrate is highest when rho has both the R1 mutation and the R2 mutation.
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Find information in the text that connects to the data in the graph.  Then, choose the answer that draws a logical conclusion from the data.

growth rate

The text introduces three strains of bacteria, which correspond to the three lines in the graph. Each strain has different mutations. The C1R2 strain maintains a relatively high growth rate across the whole graph, while the growth rates of the other two strains drop sharply as the concentration of silver nitrate increases.

The text’s last sentence indicates that the C1 mutation has previously been found to help E. coli resist silver nitrate. Two strains contain the C1 mutation, but the one that also has the R2 mutation performs better than the other at high concentrations of silver nitrate.

Because the R2 mutation is the difference between those two strains, it’s reasonable to conclude that the R2 mutation in rho may increase the effectiveness of the C1 cusS mutation when concentrations of silver nitrate are high.

(Choice A) The graph doesn’t show any strains with the R2 mutation alone or the C1 mutation alone, so it’s not possible to conclude that one is more effective than the other on its own.

(Choice B) The graph shows strains with certain mutations in the genes cusS and rho, but there isn’t enough information to conclude anything about the individual genes on their own.

(Choice D) None of the strains have two rho mutations in the same gene.

Things to remember:
The answer must be supported by data in the graph.

Percent of Pollutants eliminated

Titanium dioxide (TiO2) offers promise as a material for water purification: when TiO2 absorbs light, it acts as a catalyst for a reaction that eliminates pollutants. One disadvantage of TiO2, however, has to do with how different types of light (visible and full-spectrum) affect the photocatalytic process. With pure TiO2, the process is triggered only by full-spectrum light, not visible light, a fact that limits the material’s efficiency. Pelagia-Irene Gouma and her team devised a copper additive to expand the range of light that enables TiO2 to purify water. They tested the copper-enhanced TiO2 under both visible and full-spectrum light and concluded that the copper additive has the potential to improve TiO2-based materials’ efficiency in eliminating waterborne pollutants.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support Gouma and her team’s conclusion?

  1. Both the pure TiO2 and the copper-enhanced TiO2 eliminated more than 60% of pollutants when exposed to full-spectrum light for 240 minutes.
  2. The copper-enhanced TiO2 eliminated a higher percentage of pollutants under visible light alone than pure TiO2 eliminated even under full-spectrum light.
  3. Copper-enhanced TiO2 exposed to full-spectrum light eliminated approximately 75% of pollutants after 240 minutes, while pure TiO2 exposed to full-spectrum light eliminated approximately 25% of pollutants after 240 minutes.
  4. There was a notable difference between the percentage of pollutants eliminated by copper-enhanced TiO2 when exposed to visible light only and when exposed to full-spectrum light.
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Summarize the text and identify the team’s conclusion. Then, analyze the graph to find data that support this conclusion and choose the answer that contains this data.

The text discusses TiO2 as a catalyst for water purification, claiming that TiO2 is inefficient because it works only under full-spectrum light. The final sentence states the researchers’ conclusion that adding copper to TiO2 may improve TiO2‘s efficiency.

percent of pollutants eliminated

The graph shows the performance of both copper-enhanced TiO2 and pure TiO2 under two different lighting conditions. Each bar represents the percentage of pollutants eliminated in 240 minutes, so a higher bar indicates more pollutants eliminated and therefore better efficiency.

The bars representing copper-enhanced TiOin each lighting condition are both higher than either of the bars for pure TiO2, indicating that copper-enhanced TiO2 was more efficient even under less favorable lighting conditions (visible only) than pure TiOwas in favorable conditions (full-spectrum). Thus, the correct answer states that the copper-enhanced TiO2 eliminated a higher percentage of pollutants under visible light alone than pure TiO2 eliminated even under full-spectrum light.

(Choice A) This statement is accurate, but it doesn’t show that copper-enhanced TiO2 was more efficient than pure TiO2.

(Choice C) This choice is inaccurate based on the graph. Copper-enhanced TiO2 eliminated 95% of pollutants under full-spectrum light, while pure TiO2 eliminated 75%.

(Choice D) This choice refers only to copper-enhanced TiO2, so it doesn’t indicate increased efficiency compared with pure TiO2.

Things to remember:
The answer must contain accurate data AND support the team’s conclusion.

During the Golden Age of Mexican Cinema, between 1930 and 1960, the Mexican film industry all but dominated Latin American cinema due to the industry’s high production levels, quality, and economic success when people like Fernando de Fuentes, Emilio Fernández Romo, Joaquín Pardavé, and Dolores del Río participated in the creation of movies in various ways. However, the number of films these individuals participated in could have extended well beyond this time period as most of them began working before 1930 and continued to work well after 1960; it’s feasible, therefore, that ______

Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the text?

  1. Dolores del Río acted in significantly fewer films than did Emilio Fernández Romo, who is credited with 33 acting performances.
  2. Joaquín Pardavé’s 28 writing credits include only film scripts he wrote between 1942 and 1955.
  3. Dolores del Río acted in well over 27 films and Fernando de Fuentes produced more than 37.
  4. Fernando de Fuentes actually directed only 8 films and wrote scripts for 37.
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Determine what the text claims and choose an answer with information that logically completes the claim.

The text claims that the total number of film credits for each person listed in the table could have been higher than shown because their careers included years outside the Golden Age.

Therefore, it is feasible (reasonable; likely) that these individuals could have participated in more films than those listed in the table. The answer that supports this idea with data from the table states that it’s feasible Dolores del Río acted in well over 27 films and Fernando de Fuentes produced more than 37.

(Choice A) This answer compares how many films Dolores del Río and Emilio Fernández Romo acted in over the course of their lives. However, because the table only indicates how many films each acted in during the Golden Age, it’s not possible to know whether Dolores acted in significantly fewer than Emilio.

(Choice B) This answer focuses on the writing of Joaquín Pardavé from 1942 to 1955, but the text’s claim deals with years beyond the period from 1930 to 1960.

(Choice D) This answer inaccurately cites data from the table, as Fernando de Fuentes directed 37 and wrote 42 films during the period, not 8 and 37 films, respectively.

Things to remember:
Although some of the choices might contain accurate information from the table, only the correct answer will support the text’s claim.

Since 2020, book sales have varied widely among four categories: adult fiction, young adult fiction, juvenile fiction, and all nonfiction. The graph shows the percentage change in sales by book type from 2020 to 2023. Publishing industry professionals noted that the book type with the highest percentage increase in sales in all four years was ______.

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text?

  1. Adult fiction
  2. Young adult fiction
  3. Juvenile fiction
  4. All nonfiction
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Examine the graph’s title, labels, and key to understand what the graph shows, and read the text to determine what information is required to complete the sentence. Then, use the data from the graph to complete the text.

The graph’s lines represent four types of books and their percentage increase in sales over four years. Because the text’s incomplete sentence refers to the book type with the highest percentage increase in sales, look for the line that is above the others in all four years.

The line representing young adult fiction is above the other lines in each year. According to the graph, young adult fiction increased in sales by approximately 18%, 48%, 47%, and 50% in the years from 2020 to 2023, representing higher percentage increases in sales than for any of the other book types.

Therefore, the answer that best completes the text is Young adult fiction.

(Choices A, C, and D) The lines representing the percentage increase in sales for other book types are lower than the line for young adult fiction in every year shown.

  • Choice A: Sales of adult fiction books increased by 5%, 29%, 41%, and 42%.
  • Choice C: Sales of juvenile fiction books increased by 13%, 22%, 12%, and 8%.
  • Choice D: Sales of nonfiction books increased by 9%, 11%, and 1% from 2020 to 2022. In 2023, sales decreased by 2%.

Things to remember:
Look for accurate data from the graph that may be used to complete the claim in the text.

Michigan State University professors Zachary Neal and Jennifer Watling Neal investigated how many Americans had chosen not to have children and at what age they consciously made that decision. In their 2022 survey of 1,500 adults, they discovered that almost 22% of the participants chose to be child-free. The percentages for when participants made their decisions, though, varied widely; for example, ______.

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the example?

  1. 34% decided between 10 and 19 years old to be child-free, but only 4% decided under 10 years old that they didn’t want children.
  2. 17% decided between 30 and 39 years old to be child-free, but only 7% decided at 50 years or older that they didn’t want children.
  3. 6% decided between 40 and 49 years old to be child-free, which is close to the same percentage of those who were 50 years or older.
  4. 4% were under 10 years old when they decided to not have children.
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Identify what information from the graph would best show the wide variation in percentages of when the decision was made; then determine which answer correctly aligns with that information.

The text indicates that the percentages of childless participants varied widely among the age ranges for when they made their decision. According to the graph, a 30% difference—the widest gap between groups—occurred between the group under 10 years of age and the group aged 10 to 19 years old.

Presenting the widest difference between age groups, the correct answer indicates that 34% decided between 10 and 19 years old to be child-free, but only 4% decided under 10 years old that they didn’t want children.

(Choices B and C) These answers present similar percentages—not a wide variation—between the age ranges of when Americans decided to be child-free.

  • Choice B: This answer discusses groups with only a 10% difference between their responses.
  • Choice C: Percentages that are “close to the same” do not represent a wide variation.

(Choice D) This statement mentions only one of the age groups, so it doesn’t show a wide variation between multiple age groups.

Things to remember:
Examine all the information in the graph—including its title and labels—to determine which data best supports the example.

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Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

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On the real test, you’ll complete two 32-minute modules with 27 questions each. That’s just over a minute per question. When practicing with SAT Reading and Writing practice questions, simulate the full two-module structure to build stamina, or try smaller timed sets with SAT Writing practice questions to improve pacing.
You’ll be tested on grammar, punctuation, usage, sentence structure, word choice, transitions, logical connections, and analysis of texts and data. Some SAT verbal questions ask you to improve clarity or evaluate arguments. Consistent practice with SAT Reading and Writing questions is the best way to improve your score.
Each module of the official exam includes 27 SAT Reading and Writing questions, for a total of 54 questions across two modules. You’ll have 32 minutes per module to complete the Evidence-Based Reading and Writing SAT section.
There is no official “passing” score. SAT section scores range from 200 to 800. For competitive colleges, students often aim for a Reading and Writing score in the 600–750 range. Consistent SAT Reading and Writing practice with high-quality questions will help you reach your target score.
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