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Question
The Summer Olympic Games are among the most-watched internationally televised sporting events and have been held in over 20 different countries. The table below gives the number of U.S. viewers, in millions, for 8 Summer Olympics opening ceremonies located in different international cities.
What is the median number of viewers, in millions, of these 8 Summer Olympics opening ceremonies?
| A. 26.6 | |
| B. 27.8 | |
| C. 28.6 | |
| D. 30.2 |
Hint :
The median is the middle of a numerically ordered data set. When the number of values is odd, the median is the middle value. When it is even, the median is the average of the two middle values.
Explanation
The median of a data set with an even number of values is the average of the middle two values when all values are ordered numerically.
The given data set has 8 values, but the values are not in order. First order the number of U.S. viewers from least to greatest.
There are 8 values in the given table, so the median is the average of the 4th and 5th ordered numbers.
The median number of U.S. viewers of these 8 Summer Olympics opening ceremonies is 28.6 million.
(Choice A) 26.6 is the average of the middle two values of the unordered list of numbers of viewers. However, the median is the average of the middle two values when all values are ordered numerically.
(Choice B) 27.8 is the smallest of the middle two values of the ordered list of numbers of viewers. However, the median of a data set with an even number of values is the average of the middle two values.
(Choice D) 30.2 is the mean of the number of viewers. However, the question asks for the median of the number of viewers.
Things to remember:
The median is the middle value of a data set that is ordered numerically. When the number of values is odd, the median is the middle value. When it is even, the median is the average of the two middle values.
Question
A box contains 12 flavored candies: 5 lime, 4 cherry, 1 orange, and 2 grape. Which of the following expressions gives the probability of choosing, at random and without replacement, a cherry candy for the first choice, a lime candy for the second choice, and a cherry candy for the third choice?
| A.
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| B.
|
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| C.
|
|
| D.
|
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| E.
|
Hint :
The probability that dependent events occur is equal to the probability that the first event occurs multiplied by the probability that each consecutive event occurs, given that each preceding event has already occurred.
Explanation
The candies are chosen without replacement (they are not replaced in the box after being chosen), so each event of choosing a candy affects the probability of the events that follow. Therefore, the events are dependent.
The probability that dependent events occur is equal to the probability that the first event occurs multiplied by the probability that each consecutive event occurs, given that each preceding event has already occurred.
The 1st event is that a cherry candy is chosen and not replaced in the box. The 2nd event is that a lime candy is chosen and not replaced, and the 3rd event is that a cherry candy is chosen and not replaced.
Therefore, the probability that a cherry candy is chosen first, a lime candy is chosen second, and a cherry candy is chosen third is:
Use the following formula to find the probability P of each event:
P(cherry 1st)
The first event is that a cherry candy is chosen first from the box.
The number of desired outcomes for choosing cherry is the number of cherry candies in the box.
The total number of possible outcomes for choosing cherry is the total number of candies in the box.
It is given that there are 4 cherry candies in the box, and it is given that the box contains a total of 12 candies. Therefore, the probability of choosing a cherry first is .
P(lime 2nd)
The probability that a lime candy is chosen second depends on the first event that a cherry candy is chosen, so it is the probability given that the first chosen candy is cherry.
The number of desired outcomes is the number of lime candies after a cherry candy is removed.
The number of possible outcomes is the number of candies remaining after a cherry candy is removed.
It is given that the full box had 5 lime candies. After a cherry candy is removed, there are still 5 lime candies and a total of 12 − 1 = 11 candies remaining.
Therefore, the probability of choosing a lime candy second is .
P(cherry 3rd)
The probability that a cherry candy is chosen third depends on the first event and the second event, so it is the probability given that the first chosen candy is cherry and the second chosen is lime.
The number of desired outcomes is the number of cherry candies remaining. The total number of possible outcomes is the number of candies remaining after a cherry and lime candy are removed.
It is given that the full box had 4 cherry candies. A cherry candy and then a lime candy were removed, so there are 4 − 1 = 3 cherry candies remaining and a total of 12 − 2 = 10 candies remaining.
Therefore, the probability of choosing a cherry candy third is .
P(cherry 1st, lime 2nd, and cherry 3rd)
Now multiply the individual probabilities to find the probability that all three events occur.
|
P(cherry 1st) · P(lime 2nd) · P(cherry 3rd) |
Probability of cherry 1st, lime 2nd, and cherry 3rd |
| Plug in probabilities |
The probability of choosing, at random and without replacement, a cherry candy first, a lime candy second, and a cherry candy third is .
(Choice A) may result from mistaking the total number of candies in the box to be 12 with each choice. However, the total number of candies in the box decreases by 1 each time a choice is made without replacement.
(Choice B) is the probability of choosing a cherry candy, a lime candy, and a cherry candy with replacement instead of without replacement.
(Choice C) may result from mistaking the number of cherry candies in the box for the third choice to be 4. However, the number of cherry candies in the box decreases by 1 each time a cherry candy is chosen without replacement.
(Choice D) may result from mistaking the number of lime candies in the box to be 4 (instead of 5).
Things to remember:
-
To find the probability of a single event, use the following formula:
-
Two events are dependent if one event affects the other.
-
To find the probability that two dependent events occur, multiply their individual probabilities together.
Question
For all real values of x, which of the following is the solution set of 3x + 9 ≥ −12 ?
| A. x ≤ −1 | |
| B. x ≥ −1 | |
| C. x ≤ −7 | |
| D. x ≥ −7 |
Hint :
To find the solution set of an inequality in one variable, isolate the variable by itself on one side of the inequality.
Explanation
The solution set of an inequality with one variable is the set of all values of the variable that make the inequality true. To find the solution set, solve for the variable in the inequality.
To solve for x in the given inequality 3x + 9 ≥ −12, subtract 9 from both sides and divide by 3 to isolate x so it is by itself on one side of the inequality.
| 3x + 9 ≥ −12 | |
| 3x ≥ −21 | Subtract 9 from both sides |
| x ≥ −7 | Divide both sides by 3 Note: The inequality sign remains unchanged because 3 is positive. |
Therefore, the solution set of the given inequality is x ≥ −7.
(Choice A) x ≤ −1 may result from a combination of the errors described in Choices B and C.
(Choice B) x ≥ −1 may result from incorrectly subtracting −12 − 9 to get −3 (instead of −21).
(Choice C) x ≤ −7 may result from mistakenly reversing the direction of the inequality. The inequality sign only reverses as a result of multiplying or dividing both sides by a negative number.
Things to remember:
- To find the solution set of an inequality in one variable, isolate the variable by itself on one side of the inequality.
- The solution set of an inequality is the set of all values that make the inequality true.
Question
An electronics company has an incentive program in which account representatives can earn money based on their monthly sales. Representatives can earn bonus pay based on their single highest sale for the month.
In a certain month, account representatives at the electronics company earned bonus pay that totaled $9,500. What is the maximum number of representatives whose single highest sale that month could have been in the range of $20,000–$39,999?
| A. 4 | |
| B. 5 | |
| C. 9 | |
| D. 10 |
Hint :
The maximum number of representatives whose single highest sale could have been in the given range is equal to the greatest whole number of bonuses for that range that could have been paid with the given total bonus.
Explanation
The number of representatives is equivalent to the number of bonuses paid, so find the maximum number of bonuses that could have been paid with the given total.
Divide the given total bonus pay by the bonus for a single highest sale in the range of $20,000–$39,999 to determine the maximum number of bonuses.
The given total bonus pay was $9,500.
To determine the bonus for a single highest sale in the range of $20,000–$39,999, use the given table.
The bonus for a single highest sale in the given range is $1,000.
Divide the given total bonus pay (9,500) by the bonus for each sale (1,000) to determine the maximum number of bonuses that could have been paid.
| Maximum number of bonuses | |
| Plug in values | |
| Divide |
The number of bonuses paid must be a whole number. The largest whole number less than 9.5 is 9, so the maximum number of bonuses that could be paid is 9.
Therefore, the maximum number of representatives is 9.
(Choices A and B) 4 and 5 may result from mistakenly dividing the highest value ($39,999) in the given range by the total bonus pay ($9,500).
(Choice D) 10 may result from mistakenly rounding 9.5 up to 10. However, the total bonus pay ($9,500) is not enough to pay a bonus of $1,000 to 10 representatives.
Question
Anthony is deciding whether to buy a membership to his local art museum. The price of an annual membership is $162 and paid members may attend any of the 16 museum events held throughout the year at no additional cost. For non-members, the museum charges $12 for an individual ticket to each event. What is the minimum number of museum events that Anthony must attend in a year so that the cost of the annual membership is less than the cost of buying an individual ticket to each event he attends?
| A. 10 | |
| B. 11 | |
| C. 13 | |
| D. 14 |
Hint :
The total membership cost must be less than or equal to the total cost of individual tickets. Write an inequality that relates the membership and individual ticket costs.
Explanation
To find the minimum number of events Anthony must attend so that the membership cost is less than (<) the total cost of individual tickets, first write an inequality that relates the membership and individual ticket costs.
The total cost of individual tickets is equal to the cost per ticket multiplied by the number of events Anthony must attend. Plug in the given costs ($162 and $12), and let the number of events he must attend be x.
Now solve the inequality for x, the minimum number of events Anthony must attend.
| Divide both sides by 12 |
For the cost of the membership to be less than the total cost of individual tickets, the minimum number of events Anthony must attend is the smallest whole number greater than 13.5.
Therefore, Anthony must attend a minimum of 14 events.
Note: It is also possible to answer the question by process of elimination. Calculate the ticket cost for each answer choice, and identify which results in the lowest amount that is greater than the membership cost (calculation).
(Choice A) 10 may result from a combination of the errors described in Choices B and C.
(Choice B) 11 may result from mistaking the total number of events (16) for the cost of each individual ticket ($12).
(Choice C) 13 may result from rounding down to the nearest answer choice (instead of rounding up), but the number of tickets must be greater than 13.5 for the membership cost to be less than the total cost of individual tickets.
Things to remember:
If the solution to an equation or inequality represents a real-world object with no fractional meaning (ex. a number of people or a number of completed tasks), it may be necessary to round that value to a whole number.
Abstract Expressionism centers on freedom of expression and excludes representational subject matter. Of all the Abstract Expressionists, Jackson Pollock is by far the most famous. Many of Pollock's paintings' exemplify his unique style and artistic vision. The full use of intense, bright, and high-valued color, it is evident in Pollock's works. Also, he often intentionally keeps from creating shapes because, in his work, lines undoubtedly dominate over form.
Pollock uses two main design principles to strengthen his paintings, balance and harmony ensure no one side carries greater weight than the other. Although his works are often not symmetrical, they almost always feel balanced. Harmony refers to repetition, when Pollock repeats foundational colors (red, yellow, blue, white, and black) from which all other values and hues are derived. Pollock combines colors proportionally, joining them together naturally and comfortably creating a harmonious effect.
[1] In addition to Abstract Expressionist, the label Action Painter definitely applies to Pollock. [2] Pollock often talked about being "in" his paintings, he often actively handled the paint he used. [3] Sometimes Pollock utilized a stick, one tool that at other times he carefully poured paint straight from the can to apply his paint with a gesture: the tools he used were secondary to the result. [4] Likewise, he used a practiced hand to direct the paint, creating a symbiotic relationship between the two. [5] He was actively involved in his paintings, laying his canvases on the ground to view his work from every angle.
Pollock's work will likely always be controversial. Many people believe that anyone can throw paint on a canvas to make abstract art. However, no one thought to throw paint on a canvas before Pollock and that makes him a pioneer. The goal of these artistic works are to evoke emotion, and many of his paintings modified this goal, capturing the spirit of exhilaration and intensity through his use of line, color, balance, and harmony.
1. This passage is from Jackson Pollock's White Light by Amberlee Clark (© 2017 by UWorld).
Question
In addition to Abstract Expressionist, the label Action Painter definitely applies to Pollock.
| A. NO CHANGE | |
| B. Expressionist, the label Action Painter, | |
| C. Expressionist the label, Action Painter | |
| D. Expressionist the label Action Painter |
Explanation
In addition to Abstract Expressionist, the label Action Painter definitely applies to Pollock.
Commas should be placed according to grammar rules, with the purpose of clarifying the meaning of a sentence.
This sentence begins with the introductory prepositional phrase "In…Expressionist." Grammar rules dictate that a comma should be placed after the introductory phrase to show where it ends and the independent clause (complete sentence) begins. No other commas are needed in the sentence to clarify meaning.
(Choice B) Commas placed after "Expressionist" and "Painter" would indicate the phrase "the label Action Painter" is information that could be deleted from the sentence. However, if this phrase were removed, it would be unclear what "applies" to Pollock.
(Choice C) Placing a comma after "label" would indicate that the introductory phrase ended there instead of after "Expressionist," which would make the resulting independent clause awkward.
(Choice D) Without any commas, it is unclear where the introductory phrase ends and the independent clause begins, making the meaning of the sentence difficult to understand.
Things to remember:
Commas should make the meaning of a sentence clear and should be placed based on specific grammar rules, like using a comma after an introductory clause.
Passage
Abstract Expressionism centers on freedom of expression and excludes representational subject matter. Of all the Abstract Expressionists, Jackson Pollock is by far the most famous. Many of Pollock's paintings' exemplify his unique style and artistic vision. The full use of intense, bright, and high-valued color, it is evident in Pollock's works. Also, he often intentionally keeps from creating shapes because, in his work, lines undoubtedly dominate over form.
Pollock uses two main design principles to strengthen his paintings, balance and harmony ensure no one side carries greater weight than the other. Although his works are often not symmetrical, they almost always feel balanced. Harmony refers to repetition, when Pollock repeats foundational colors (red, yellow, blue, white, and black) from which all other values and hues are derived. Pollock combines colors proportionally, joining them together naturally and comfortably creating a harmonious effect.
[1] In addition to Abstract Expressionist, the label Action Painter definitely applies to Pollock. [2] Pollock often talked about being "in" his paintings, he often actively handled the paint he used. [3] Sometimes Pollock utilized a stick, one tool that at other times he carefully poured paint straight from the can to apply his paint with a gesture: the tools he used were secondary to the result. [4] Likewise, he used a practiced hand to direct the paint, creating a symbiotic relationship between the two. [5] He was actively involved in his paintings, laying his canvases on the ground to view his work from every angle.
Pollock's work will likely always be controversial. Many people believe that anyone can throw paint on a canvas to make abstract art. However, no one thought to throw paint on a canvas before Pollock and that makes him a pioneer. The goal of these artistic works are to evoke emotion, and many of his paintings modified this goal, capturing the spirit of exhilaration and intensity through his use of line, color, balance, and harmony.
1. This passage is from Jackson Pollock's White Light by Amberlee Clark (© 2017 by UWorld).
Question
The full use of intense, bright, and high-valued color, it is evident in Pollock's works.
| A. NO CHANGE | |
| B. color | |
| C. color that which | |
| D. color, it is this which |
Explanation
The full use of intense, bright, and high-valued color is evident in Pollock's works.
To determine the correct wordingand whether to use a comma ,locate the subject and verb:
-
"Use" functions as the subject of the sentence, not as a verb. The word "the" that comes before it indicates that "use" is being used as a noun.
-
The verb in the sentence is "is."
Usually, no commas separate the complete subject from the verb that begins the predicate. Also, adding additional words or punctuation would create a grammatically incorrect sentence.
(Choices A & D) Placing a comma after "color" followed by either "it" or "it is this which" would make "The…color" an introductory clause, but doing so would make the sentence awkward. Also, it might be unclear what is being referred to by "it."
(Choice C) Adding "that which" before "is" would mean that the verb is part of a dependent clause; however, the main sentence would then lack a verb, making it a fragment instead of a complete sentence.
Things to remember:
Sometimes words can function as either verbs or subjects. When determining whether to add extra wording or commas, see if doing so would make the sentence clear and grammatically correct.
Passage
INFORMATIONAL: This passage is adapted from the article "Octopuses are Smart Suckers!?" by Jennifer Mather (© 2000 by Jennifer Mather).
While watching an octopus in Bermuda, animal behaviorist Jennifer Mather observed it sitting in its sheltering den after a foraging expedition, where it caught several crabs, took them home, and ate them. Suddenly it jetted out directly to a small rock about six feet away, tucked it under its spread arms and jetted back. Going out three times more in different directions, it took up three more rocks and piled the resulting barrier in front of the entrance to its den and went to sleep. To Dr. Mather, this didn't look like random action.
An octopus is very different from a mammal. It lives only about two years. It has much less opportunity to gain and use knowledge than an elephant, which has a 50-year lifespan and three generations of a family to learn from. The young octopus learns on its own with minimal contact with other octopuses and no influences of parental care or sibling rivalry. This may be because the octopus has a large brain with vertical and sub-frontal lobes dedicated to storing learned information: it has the anatomy for a robust, built-in intelligence.
But it is not enough to know that anatomy predicts an animal to be intelligent without some idea of how it uses this ability. Investigations at Naples in the 1950s and 1960s found that octopuses can learn a wide array of visual patterns, encoding information mostly by comparing edges, orientations, and shapes. They also learn by touch, and that tactile information is stored in a different area of the brain. Intent on just demonstrating learning abilities at first, researchers did not follow up to find what octopuses were doing with this learning in their ocean home. As concerns about direct experimentation in laboratories on intelligent animals began to emphasize observation of natural behavior in the field, the Naples studies ended, and no link was made between abstract information storage and the use of learning in daily life. In 1996, the works of Roger Hanlon and John Messenger provided an overview of cephalopod behavior in their natural habitat, studying areas such as prey manipulation, personality, and even play in the octopus.
What were octopuses doing with the information that learning studies said they could acquire? One study Mather and Roland C. Anderson undertook in 1999 centered on the "Packaging Problem." The problem posed was how an octopus could get at the soft, delectable clam enclosed in its hard shell. Many predators have evolved means of penetrating the clam's hard shell—sea stars pull the valves apart, seabirds pry them apart, snails drill a hole into the shell, and gulls drop the clam from a carefully calculated height onto rocks or road pavement.
But the octopus does even better than these predators in that it can use an arsenal of different solutions for use in feeding. It has the holding ability of hundreds of suckers and the pulling power of eight muscular arms, flexible because they are boneless. Underneath, inside the mouth at the junction of the arms, it has a parrot-like twin beak for biting. Inside are also two more useful structures, the radula with teeth for rasping and the extendible salivary papilla that delivers cephalotoxin, a neuromuscular function-blocker that can kill a crab in several minutes. Fortunately for Mather and Anderson, only the venom of blue-ringed octopuses has proven fatal to humans.
Since octopuses are well set up to recover and use information for solving the problem of the clam's protection, Mather and Anderson set out to determine what the giant Pacific octopus would do to get at three types of bivalves. Prey species were each opened differently. The fragile mussel shells were simply broken, and the stronger Venus clams were pulled apart. Thick-shelled Protothaca clams were drilled with the octopuses' radula and salivary papilla, or chipped with the beak, then injected with venom, which weakened the muscle holding the valves together. When they were offered the clams opened on the half shell, the octopuses changed preference and consumed both clam species, but hardly any mussels. When they didn't have to work hard for the clam meat, they liked Protothaca. Octopuses could also shift their penetration strategies. When live Venus clams were wired shut with stainless steel wire, the octopuses couldn't pull the valves apart, so they then tried drilling and chipping. Given empty-weighted shells glued shut, the octopuses ignored them; they were on to that trick right away.
Perhaps this individual sensitivity to change, honed by intelligence and variability, has been the key to solving the puzzle of the success of both the cephalopods and the higher vertebrates. Similarities that could lead us to understand the evolution of intelligence in octopuses and humans are few but thought-provoking. Neither group has the protection of a hard exoskeleton. Both have evolved in complex environments; the octopuses in the tropical coral reef and the hominid in the savanna edge. Both have considerable variability among individuals and the ability to change their behavior to help them survive. So, perhaps looking at octopuses through their intelligence, as witnessed by their feeding flexibility, helps us also look at aspects of ourselves as we continue to unpack the evolution of intelligence.
Question
Based on the passage, the notion that octopus behavior is not random is best described as a:
| A. fact that is supported by studies on human intelligence. | |
| B. reasoned judgment from an expert in animal behavior. | |
| C. reasoned judgment from scientists who study anatomy. | |
| D. belief that the passage author proved incorrect. |
Explanation
P1: While watching an octopus in Bermuda, animal behaviorist Jennifer Mather observed it sitting in its sheltering den after a foraging expedition, where it caught several crabs, took them home, and ate them. Suddenly it jetted out directly to a small rock about six feet away, tucked it under its spread arms and jetted back. Going out three times more in different directions, it took up three more rocks and piled the resulting barrier in front of the entrance to its den and went to sleep. To Dr. Mather, this didn't look like random action.
Summarize the discussion connected to the notion (belief) that octopus behavior is not random (occurring without thought or intention) and select the answer that best matches the details of that discussion.
P1 discusses octopus behavior, stating that while studying an octopus, animal behaviorist Jennifer Mather observed behaviors that "didn't look like random action." An animal behaviorist has a high degree of knowledge about animal behavior.
Based on these details, the notion that octopus behavior is not random is best described as a reasoned judgment from an expert in animal behavior.
(Choice A) The final paragraph suggests that studying octopus intelligence might help scientists learn more about human intelligence, but there is no evidence that studies on human intelligence have been used to support ideas about octopus behavior.
(Choice C) Although the passage author implies that an octopus's "anatomy predicts" it to be intelligent, the author also indicates this is not enough to conclude anything about its behavior. Furthermore, the passage doesn't mention any specific scientists who study anatomy.
(Choice D) The passage author notes that the octopus's behavior "didn't look like random action" and offers no evidence to disprove this idea.
Things to remember:
Identify the answer that is based on the passage by reading all the passage evidence about the question's subject.
Passage
INFORMATIONAL: This passage is adapted from the article "Octopuses are Smart Suckers!?" by Jennifer Mather (© 2000 by Jennifer Mather).
While watching an octopus in Bermuda, animal behaviorist Jennifer Mather observed it sitting in its sheltering den after a foraging expedition, where it caught several crabs, took them home, and ate them. Suddenly it jetted out directly to a small rock about six feet away, tucked it under its spread arms and jetted back. Going out three times more in different directions, it took up three more rocks and piled the resulting barrier in front of the entrance to its den and went to sleep. To Dr. Mather, this didn't look like random action.
An octopus is very different from a mammal. It lives only about two years. It has much less opportunity to gain and use knowledge than an elephant, which has a 50-year lifespan and three generations of a family to learn from. The young octopus learns on its own with minimal contact with other octopuses and no influences of parental care or sibling rivalry. This may be because the octopus has a large brain with vertical and sub-frontal lobes dedicated to storing learned information: it has the anatomy for a robust, built-in intelligence.
But it is not enough to know that anatomy predicts an animal to be intelligent without some idea of how it uses this ability. Investigations at Naples in the 1950s and 1960s found that octopuses can learn a wide array of visual patterns, encoding information mostly by comparing edges, orientations, and shapes. They also learn by touch, and that tactile information is stored in a different area of the brain. Intent on just demonstrating learning abilities at first, researchers did not follow up to find what octopuses were doing with this learning in their ocean home. As concerns about direct experimentation in laboratories on intelligent animals began to emphasize observation of natural behavior in the field, the Naples studies ended, and no link was made between abstract information storage and the use of learning in daily life. In 1996, the works of Roger Hanlon and John Messenger provided an overview of cephalopod behavior in their natural habitat, studying areas such as prey manipulation, personality, and even play in the octopus.
What were octopuses doing with the information that learning studies said they could acquire? One study Mather and Roland C. Anderson undertook in 1999 centered on the "Packaging Problem." The problem posed was how an octopus could get at the soft, delectable clam enclosed in its hard shell. Many predators have evolved means of penetrating the clam's hard shell—sea stars pull the valves apart, seabirds pry them apart, snails drill a hole into the shell, and gulls drop the clam from a carefully calculated height onto rocks or road pavement.
But the octopus does even better than these predators in that it can use an arsenal of different solutions for use in feeding. It has the holding ability of hundreds of suckers and the pulling power of eight muscular arms, flexible because they are boneless. Underneath, inside the mouth at the junction of the arms, it has a parrot-like twin beak for biting. Inside are also two more useful structures, the radula with teeth for rasping and the extendible salivary papilla that delivers cephalotoxin, a neuromuscular function-blocker that can kill a crab in several minutes. Fortunately for Mather and Anderson, only the venom of blue-ringed octopuses has proven fatal to humans.
Since octopuses are well set up to recover and use information for solving the problem of the clam's protection, Mather and Anderson set out to determine what the giant Pacific octopus would do to get at three types of bivalves. Prey species were each opened differently. The fragile mussel shells were simply broken, and the stronger Venus clams were pulled apart. Thick-shelled Protothaca clams were drilled with the octopuses' radula and salivary papilla, or chipped with the beak, then injected with venom, which weakened the muscle holding the valves together. When they were offered the clams opened on the half shell, the octopuses changed preference and consumed both clam species, but hardly any mussels. When they didn't have to work hard for the clam meat, they liked Protothaca. Octopuses could also shift their penetration strategies. When live Venus clams were wired shut with stainless steel wire, the octopuses couldn't pull the valves apart, so they then tried drilling and chipping. Given empty-weighted shells glued shut, the octopuses ignored them; they were on to that trick right away.
Perhaps this individual sensitivity to change, honed by intelligence and variability, has been the key to solving the puzzle of the success of both the cephalopods and the higher vertebrates. Similarities that could lead us to understand the evolution of intelligence in octopuses and humans are few but thought-provoking. Neither group has the protection of a hard exoskeleton. Both have evolved in complex environments; the octopuses in the tropical coral reef and the hominid in the savanna edge. Both have considerable variability among individuals and the ability to change their behavior to help them survive. So, perhaps looking at octopuses through their intelligence, as witnessed by their feeding flexibility, helps us also look at aspects of ourselves as we continue to unpack the evolution of intelligence.
Question
The passage indicates that compared to those of mussels and Venus clams, the shells of Protothaca clams are:
| A. more easily broken and light. | |
| B. thicker and more protective. | |
| C. less attractive and nutritious. | |
| D. less robust and intricate. |
Explanation
P6: The fragile mussel shells were simply broken, and the stronger Venus clams were pulled apart. Thick-shelled Protothaca clams were drilled. with the octopuses' radula and salivary papilla, or chippedwith the beak, then injected with venom, which weakened the muscle holding the valves together.
Compare the shells of Protothaca clams to the shells of mussels and Venus clams by summarizing their descriptions and choosing the answer that matches both descriptions.
Protothaca clams are compared to mussels and Venus clams in P6:
| Mussel shells | Venus clam shells | Protothaca clam shells |
|---|---|---|
| "fragile" and "simply broken" | "stronger" than mussel shells but can be "pulled apart" | "thick-shelled"; must be either "chipped" or "drilled" and then "injected with venom" (poison) before they can be opened |
These details indicate that octopuses can open mussels and Venus clams in one step, whereas Protothaca clams require multiple steps because the shells of Protothaca clams cannot be easily broken open or pulled apart. Therefore, compared to the shells of mussels and Venus clams, the shells of Protothaca clams are thicker and more protective.
(Choice A) P6 states that Protothaca clams are "thick-shelled," indicating they are not easily broken and are likely heavy rather than light.
(Choice C) P6 doesn't discuss the attractiveness of the shells, nor does it suggest any shells are nutritious. Octopuses eat the meat inside the shells, not the shells themselves.
(Choice D) P6 indicates that Protothaca shells are more difficult to open than the others, so they are more, not less, robust (strong). The passage describes feeding on Protothaca as an intricate (complex) process but doesn't describe the shells as intricate.
Things to remember:
To compare items in the passage, summarize key details about each item and select the answer that accurately describes the relationship between them.
Passage A by Kate Flint
All photography requires light, but the light used in flash photography is unique—shocking, intrusive, and abrupt. Unlike the light that comes from the sun, or even from ambient illumination, flash explodes suddenly into the darkness.
In the early days of flash photography, a sense of quasi-divine revelation was invoked by some flash photographers, especially when documenting deplorable social conditions. The filthy darkness in which the urban poor lived could not have been photographed otherwise. Jacob Riis, working in New York in the late 1880s, used spiritual language to underscore flash's significance as an instrument to expose—and hopefully rectify—the horrid conditions of those living in urban squalor.
It's in relation to documentary photography that we most starkly encounter flash's contradictory aspects. It makes visible that which would otherwise remain in darkness; to do so requires an intrusion, a rupturing of private lives and interiors. Yet flash brings a form of democracy to the material world. Formerly insignificant details take on unplanned prominence, as we see in the work of those Farm Security Administration (FSA) photographers who used flash in the 1930s and laid bare the reality of poverty during the Depression. A sudden flare of light reveals each dent on a kitchen utensil and the label on each carefully stored can; each cherished ornament on the mantle; each wrinkle of the skin.
These FSA photographers used flash bulbs, not powder. Pioneered in the late 1920s, these bulbs became generally available around 1930, their ease and portability transforming the abilities of press photographers, documentarians, even police photographers, who could now record evidence of crimes committed under the cover of darkness. But the history of flash photography is about speed as well as light. The breathtaking, high-speed images produced by Harold Edgerton in the mid-20th century, enabled by very high-speed bursts of light from electrically-controlled neon tubes, created the illusion of stopped motion: bullets piercing playing cards or balloons; golfers and tennis players swinging at balls. The ordinary became strange and beautiful through stroboscopic flash.
These examples challenge the bad press that flash photography has received over the century and a half since its invention. Sudden and surprising light continues to be imaginatively deployed by inventive photographers, once again making luminous something of the original wonder that attended flash.
Passage B by Kate Flint
Susan Sontag was deliberately provocative when she coupled photography with violence. There is, she wrote in 1977, "something predatory in the act of taking a picture." She pointed out that we speak casually about "loading" and "aiming" a camera: "Just as the camera is a sublimation of a gun, to photograph someone is a sublimated violation of privacy." Sontag's hyperbole prodded her readers to consider the identity-freezing that is implicit in each portrait that is shot.
But it is less of an exaggeration to couple violence with one particular photographic technology: flash. From the earliest decades of flash photography, when limelight or magnesium was used to illuminate darkness, flash was associated with explosive unpredictability. Even after flash powder was invented in 1887, accidents were commonplace, maiming and injuring photographers. Not until flash bulbs were introduced around 1930 did the means for producing sudden blasts of artificial light become easier and more dependable, and this increased with the advent of the Speedlite and other electronic flash guns.
"Flash gun"—that nomenclature takes us full circle, since some of the early contraptions for igniting flash powder indeed looked much like a revolver. The name, and the linkage to violence and weaponry, stuck. The allusion is clear in the black humor of the words that decorated some military gun barrels in World War II: "Smile. Wait for flash." Weaponry and photography work in consort in Alfred Hitchcock's film Foreign Correspondent, in which a man posing as a news photographer fires a weapon at the same moment that he sets off his camera flash.
Flash can also enact a form of ethical violence. Among those who worked for the Farm Security Administration during the Depression, Dorothea Lange saw its use as invasive, and Ben Shahn expressed his doubts--both about photographing someone else's private space and about flash's aesthetics. "When some of the people came in and began to use flash I thought it was immoral," he said. "You know, you come into a sharecropper's cabin and it's dark. But a flash destroyed that darkness." Another photographic artist, Henri Cartier-Bresson, also shunned the flash, in part due to its association with newsmen and detective work. No one more famously brought flash and crime together than the man known as Weegee, working in mid-20th-century New York to record criminal activity. "A photographer is a hunter with a camera," he said, anticipating Sontag.
Nowhere has this determined violation and exploitation been more apparent than in the work of paparazzi. Popping flash bulbs have become visual shorthand for the achievement of notoriety, as well as the price paid for that fame. Think of King Kong—captured, brought to New York City, exhibited on stage, and then startled into destructive rage by newspaper photographers. Whether viewed as exposure or exploitation, flash photography is historically, and disconcertingly, inseparable from violence.
Question
This question asks about Passage A
One reasonable inference from Passage A is that before the mid-20th century, photographers had not yet figured out:
| A. ways to replace flash powder with portable flash bulbs. | |
| B. how they would use their photos to document the lives of the poor. | |
| C. whether people would object to the intrusion of flash photography. | |
| D. ways to create photographic images of movements too fast for the human eye to see. |
Explanation
P4: But the history of flash photography is about speed as well as light. The breathtaking, high-speed images produced by Harold Edgerton in the mid-20th century, enabled by very high-speed bursts of light from electrically-controlled neon tubes, created the illusion of stopped motion: bullets piercing playing cards or balloons; golfers and tennis players swinging at balls.
When a question asks what can be reasonably inferred from a passage, the answer will be a conclusion that you draw from the text.
The question requires you to examine any references to the mid-20th century (around the 1950s) and infer (draw a conclusion) what flash photographers had not discovered until then. Skim the answer choices and eliminate any that are not supported by the text. The correct answer will be something that happened in the mid-20th century or later.
| (Choice A) ways to replace flash powder with portable flash bulbs | P4 notes that "FSA photographers used flash bulbs, not powder…in the late 1920s," which was before the mid-20th century. |
| (Choice B) how they would use their photos to document the lives of the poor | P2 mentions Jacob Riis documenting the lives of the poor in the 1880s. This was well before the mid-20th century. |
| (Choice C) whether people would object to the intrusion of flash photography | Passage A doesn't discuss whether people objected to flash photography. |
| (Choice D) ways to create photographic images of movements too fast for the human eye to see | P4 states that "the…images produced…in the mid-20th century…created the illusion of stopped motion [which the eye cannot see in real time]," implying that photographers had not figured out how to create images of movements too fast for the human eye to see before this time. |
Things to remember:
When asked what can be inferred from the passage, summarize the details and determine which answer choice is logically supported by those details.
Passage
The process by which gases and particles from atmospheric pollution are transferred to the ground in precipitation is called wet deposition. Nitrogen compounds are released into the air via human activities such as agriculture and the burning of fossil fuels. In agriculture, the use of ammonia (NH3) fertilizer and the accumulation of animal waste contribute to the presence of ammonium ions (NH4+) in the atmosphere, and the burning of fossil fuels in factories and automobiles is a source of nitrate ions (NO3−).
Study 1
Rainfall samples were collected at a rural site over a 5-month period using a funnel inserted into a container. After each rainfall, the volume of the collected sample was measured, and the sample was stored in a freezer. A rain gauge was also used to measure the total rainfall at the site. The monthly rainfall totals at the site are shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
The samples collected for each month were analyzed for concentrations of NH4+ and NO3−. Using these results, the monthly deposition of inorganic nitrogen, in milligrams per square meter (mg/m2), was calculated (see Figure 2).
Figure 2
Study 2
Using the same procedure as in Study 1, rainfall was collected over a 5-month period at 6 sites (Sites 1–6) located along an east-west transect (a narrow section across Earth's surface) extending approximately 700 kilometers. The eastern end of the transect was located in an industrialized area, and the western end was in an agricultural area. The other sites were neither industrialized nor agricultural. The total deposition of inorganic nitrogen at the sites was calculated (see Figure 3).
Figure 3
Study 3
Rain samples were collected over the course of a 3-month period at the eastern end of the transect using the procedure described in Study 1. Based on these samples, the atmospheric concentrations of NH4+ and NO3− were calculated (see Figure 4).
Figure 4
Question
Which of the following statements about the relationship between rainfall and wet deposition is supported by the information from Study 1?
| A. As the monthly rainfall increased, atmospheric deposition increased for both NH4+ and NO3−. | |
| B. As the monthly rainfall increased, atmospheric deposition increased for NH4+ but decreased for NO3−. | |
| C. As the monthly rainfall increased, atmospheric deposition increased for NO3− but decreased for NH4+. | |
| D. As the monthly rainfall increased, atmospheric deposition decreased for both NH4+ and NO3−. |
Explanation
Analyze the results of Study 1, shown in Figures 1 and 2, to determine which statement in the answer choices is supported by the data.
Figures 1 and 2 show:
- When the monthly rainfall increased, the monthly deposition of NH4+ and NO3− increased.
- When the monthly rainfall decreased, the monthly deposition of NH4+ and NO3− decreased.
Therefore, the statement, "As the monthly rainfall increased, atmospheric deposition increased for both NH4+ and NO3−," is supported by the information from Study 1.
(Choices B, C, and D) As monthly rainfall increased, deposition of NO3− and NH4+ both increased. Therefore, answer choices that state that NO3− or NH4+ decreased are incorrect.
Things to remember:
To understand the relationship between variables, examine the data to locate the variables and see if the second variable increases, decreases, or stays the same as the first variable changes.
Passage
Ammonia (NH3) reacts with water (H2O) according to the following equation:
NH3 + H2O → NH4+ + OH−
Figure 1 shows the apparatus that a teacher assembled for a demonstration. The flask was filled with ammonia gas, and the graduated cylinder contained water. The flask was sealed with a rubber stopper through which a glass tube passed. The tube extended into the water located in the cylinder. A syringe containing 10 mL of water was also connected to the flask.
At the beginning of the demonstration, the water volume in the cylinder was 910 mL. The water from the syringe was injected into the flask. Soon after, water began flowing up through the glass tube from the cylinder into the flask. The flow of water continued upward for about a minute and then stopped. When the flow stopped, the water volume in the cylinder was 190 mL (see Figure 2).
Following the demonstration, the teacher asked 3 students to explain what had happened. The students agreed that the water moved up into the flask because of a pressure difference. They disagreed about why the pressure changed.
Student 1
Gases cannot dissolve in liquids, so the injected water did not mix or react with the ammonia gas. Therefore, the gas was compressed into a smaller volume, which caused the pressure of the gas to decrease, even though the temperature and total mass of ammonia did not change. Because the pressure decreased, water flowed into the flask, therefore compressing the gas even more and causing more water to flow.
Student 2
The injected water reacted with the ammonia gas, resulting in the production of NH4+ and OH− ions, causing the water to become basic. The volume and temperature of the gas did not change, but the reaction caused the number of gas molecules to decrease, causing the pressure of the gas to decrease. Water was pulled into the flask due to the lower pressure. As more water entered, more reactions occurred, lowering the pressure even more.
Student 3
Ammonia is highly soluble in water; therefore, the injected water dissolved some of the ammonia gas, which reduced its pressure. The partial vacuum that was created pulled more water into the flask, which dissolved even more ammonia, causing the process to continue. The water in the flask became basic because of the reaction that occurred between the ammonia and the water.
Question
As the water flowed up into the flask, did the total mass of ammonia in the flask increase or decrease?
| A. Decrease, because ammonia was being produced. | |
| B. Decrease, because ammonia was being consumed. | |
| C. Increase, because ammonia was being produced. | |
| D. Increase, because ammonia was being consumed. |
Explanation
P1: Ammonia (NH3) reacts with water (H2O) according to the following equation: NH3 + H2O → NH4+ + OH−
Examine the chemical equation in the passage to determine if the total mass of ammonia in the flask increased or decreased.
| Prior Knowledge: In a chemical reaction, reactants are consumed, which causes their mass to decrease and increases the mass of products. |
According to the given chemical equation, ammonia gas (NH3) is a reactant and is being consumed.
Therefore, as the water flowed up into the flask, the total mass of NH3 in the flask would decrease because ammonia was being consumed.
(Choices A and C) NH3 is a reactant, therefore, it is being consumed, not produced.
(Choice D) If NH3 were being consumed, its total mass would decrease, not increase.
Things to remember:
In a chemical reaction, the total mass of reactants goes down and the total mass of products goes up.
Passage
Two scientists discuss the causes of supernovae (stars in their last evolutionary stage in which they explode). Type Ia supernovae, which occur in systems with at least 2 stars, are classified as such because 1 of the stars in the system is a white dwarf (low-mass star that has depleted all its central nuclear fuel).
Scientist 1
Type Ia supernovae are associated with white dwarfs that are made mostly of carbon and oxygen (C–O) atoms. These white dwarfs are found in binary systems (system with two stars) with younger companion stars that orbit the white dwarfs; red giants (dying stars with inflated outer atmospheres) are usually the companion stars.
The white dwarf's high density (more than 200,000 times the density of Earth) and intense gravity (at least 100,000 times that of Earth) causes matter to be pulled off the red giant and fall onto the white dwarf, increasing its mass. The white dwarf's mass eventually reaches a critical point known as the Chandrasekhar limit (a white dwarf's maximum stable mass), which is approximately 1.4 times the Sun's mass of 2 × 1030 kg. Once the Chandrasekhar limit is exceeded, the white dwarf will become unstable and explode as a type Ia supernova.
Scientist 2
Type Ia supernovae occur when two C–O white dwarfs collide and merge. The white dwarf right before it merges has a mass about equal to that of the Sun and a density of approximately 1 × 109 kg/m3. The more massive a white dwarf is, the closer its electrons (negatively charged subatomic particles) become, causing the white dwarf to become smaller and denser. Although the Chandrasekhar limit, as correctly described by Scientist 1, can be a factor in causing supernovae, it is not relevant to type Ia supernovae because the white dwarfs become smaller, not larger.
After the collision of the white dwarfs, the temperature becomes hot enough (about 100,000,000°C) to cause helium from the merged stars to undergo a helium flash (quick burn), creating a detonation front that spreads out in all directions. When the energy from the detonation front reaches the core of the merged stars, a carbon flash occurs and the expanding detonation radiates quickly outward, causing the type Ia supernova.
Question
The mass of a white dwarf before it merges as mentioned by Scientist 2 would most likely have been which of the following values?
| A. 1.0 × 109 kg | |
| B. 1.4 × 109 kg | |
| C. 2.0 × 1030 kg | |
| D. 2.8 × 1030 kg |
Explanation
Scientist 1: …the Sun's mass of 2 × 1030 kg.
Scientist 2: The white dwarf right before it merges has a mass about equal to that of the Sun….
Analyze the passage to determine the mass of a white dwarf before it merges.
According to the passage:
-
Scientist 2 states that the mass of a white dwarf before it merges is roughly equal to the mass of the Sun.
- The Sun's mass is 2.0 × 1030 kg.
Therefore, the mass of a white dwarf before it merges as mentioned by Scientist 2 would most likely have been 2.0 × 1030 kg.
(Choice A) 1.0 × 109 without the unit, kg, relates to the density of a merged white dwarf, not its mass.
(Choice B) 1.4 × 109 without the unit, kg, is the multiplication factor related to the Chandrasekhar limit, not the mass of a merged white dwarf.
(Choice D) 2.8 × 1030 kg represents the mass of the Sun (2.0 × 1030 kg) multiplied by 1.4 (the multiplication factor related to the Chandrasekhar limit), not the mass of a merged white dwarf.
Things to remember:
Sometimes information from a viewpoint not referenced in the question is required for finding the answer.
Passage
The strands of the DNA double helix are composed of nucleotides. Each nucleotide is made of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and 1 of 4 nitrogenous bases: adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine (see Figure 1).
Figure 1
Two models of how DNA replicates are proposed.
Model 1
Nitrogenous bases are complementary to each other because adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine. Complementary base pairing occurs through hydrogen bonding. When DNA replicates, the hydrogen bonds are broken, exposing the bases of the double helix (see Figure 2).
Figure 2
Exposing the bases allows the DNA replication machinery to make an identical copy of the double helix. After replication is complete, base pairing of the newly copied strands of DNA occurs. The 2 strands of the original double helix then join back together. The result is a double helix that contains only newly formed DNA and another double helix that contains only the original DNA (see Figure 3).
Figure 3
Model 2
Model 2 agrees with Model 1 that for replication to occur, the hydrogen bonds between the complementary nitrogenous bases must be broken. However, rather than making a simple copy of the original DNA, the DNA replication machinery uses the original strand as a template. This enables the hydrogen bonding of new complementary bases along the original strands of DNA. After replication is complete, each strand of original DNA remains bonded to a newly created strand. Consequently, the resulting product is 2 identical double helixes, each composed of a strand of original DNA and a strand of newly formed DNA (see Figure 4).
Figure 4
Question
Which of the following findings about the structure of the newly formed DNA would be inconsistent with both Models 1 and 2?
| A. The sides of the DNA helix are composed of sugars and phosphates. | |
| B. The complementary bases are held together by hydrogen bonds. | |
| C. The DNA replication machinery aids in the process of replication. | |
| D. Each strand of the replicated DNA molecule has sections of both original DNA and new DNA. |
Explanation
Model 1: The result is a double helix that contains only newly formed DNA and another double helix that contains only the original DNA.
Model 2: …the resulting product is 2 identical double helixes, each composed of a strand of original DNA and a strand of newly formed DNA.
Compare each answer choice with the information in the passage to determine which is inconsistent with both Models 1 and 2.
According to the passage:
-
The resulting DNA for Model 1 illustrated in Figure 3 consists of a double helix that contains only the original DNA and another double helix that contains only the newly formed DNA.
-
The resulting DNA for Model 2 illustrated in Figure 4 consists of a double helix with one strand of original DNA and another strand of newly formed DNA.
Therefore, the findings about the structure of the newly formed DNA that would be inconsistent with both Models 1 and 2 are, "Each strand of the replicated DNA molecule has sections of both original DNA and new DNA."
(Choice A) The passage indicates that the strands of DNA double helix are composed of nucleotides, which are made up of a sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base.
(Choice B) Both Models 1 and 2 suggest that complementary bases are held together by hydrogen bonds.
(Choice C) The passage indicates that DNA replication machinery helps in replication.
Things to remember:
For a question that asks for a statement that is inconsistent with part of the passage, look for the answer choice that the passage does not support.
Passage
When a lithium-ion battery catches fire, the lithium hexafluorophosphate (LiPF6) electrolyte reacts with moisture in the air to produce lithium fluoride (LiF), phosphoryl fluoride (POF3), and hydrogen fluoride (HF):
Two experiments were conducted to study the release of heat and the production of HF from this reaction. The apparatus shown in the diagram below was used to collect data in each trial.
diagram
In a single burning item (SBI) room, a lithium-ion battery was exposed to an external propane fire. The heat release rate was recorded using a data logger sensor in the SBI room. As the emitted gases exited the room through a vent hood, the amount of HF produced was analyzed by Fourier-transform infrared (FTIR) spectroscopy. (This equipment is used to measure the concentration of gases in the air.)
In each trial of the experiments, Steps 1–3 were performed:
-
A lithium-ion battery was charged to a selected amount of 0%, 50%, or 100%.
-
The testing apparatus was assembled in the SBI room and 2 minutes into the test, the external propane fire was ignited.
-
During each 30-minute trial, the heat release rate or the HF produced was recorded.
The atmospheric oxygen and moisture levels were kept constant throughout all 3 steps.
Experiment 1
In each trial, a lithium-ion battery charged to 0%, 50%, or 100% was exposed to an external fire and tested for the heat release rate (see Figure 1).
Figure 1
Experiment 2
In each trial, a lithium-ion battery charged to 0%, 50%, or 100% was exposed to an external fire and tested for HF production (see Figure 2).
Figure 2
Question
Which of the following variables remained constant throughout Experiments 1 and 2?
| A. Atmospheric oxygen | |
| B. Temperature of the battery | |
| C. Charge of the battery | |
| D. HF production |
Explanation
P5: The atmospheric oxygen and moisture level were kept constant throughout all 3 steps.
Use the description of the experimental design to determine which variable remained constant throughout both experiments.
According to the passage, atmospheric oxygen was kept constant throughout all 3 steps of Experiments 1 and 2.
(Choice B) Although not directly stated in the passage, it can be determined by analyzing Figure 1 that the rate at which heat was released changed throughout the experiment.
(Choice C) The charge of the battery (100%, 50%, and 0%) was an independent variable. It did not remain constant throughout both experiments.
(Choice D) Hydrogen fluoride production was a dependent variable reflected on the y-axes of Figures 1 and 2. Since it changed throughout the experiment, it did not remain constant throughout both experiments.
Things to remember:
To identify a constant in an experiment, read the answer choices and examine any graphs. Eliminate the variables that change and identify the factors that remain unchanged throughout the experiment.
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- In-house SAT tutors and educators break down tough concepts with clear animations and step-by-step explanations. Finally, understand the topics that confuse you.
- Our comprehensive SAT prep book set, available in both print and digital formats, provides focused content review. It's perfectly aligned with the videos and practice questions.
- After each SAT lesson, use these foundational questions to confirm you understand the core concepts before tackling more difficult, exam-style problems. Build your confidence.
- The printed SAT guide includes an additional set of unique, exam-level practice questions not found online, complete with detailed, illustrated solutions for extra practice.
Start your free trial with free SAT practice questions,
perfect for a quick topic review or a full deep dive into the entire exam.
| Save Big, Score High! | ||
Flexible SAT & ACT prep with full QBank access, realistic tests, and smart tools like custom quizzes, study planner, and performance tracking to help you improve faster and score higher. What’s Included in the SAT + ACT Bundle |
||
| Master both exams with a comprehensive database of 4200+ questions. Practice items mirror the style of both the SAT and ACT, with clear, visual explanations for every single one. | ||
| Adapt your study plan for both tests. Generate targeted practice exams for the SAT, the ACT, or specific sections from both. It's the most flexible way to prep for both test days. | ||
| Monitor your readiness for each exam in its own unique dashboard. The analytics break down your progress for the SAT and ACT separately, so you can intelligently divide your study time. | ||
| Optimize your prep by tackling SAT and ACT topics individually. Whether it's ACT English or SAT Math, you choose what to study, ensuring no time is wasted on concepts you already know. | ||
| Tell us your schedule and test dates, and our planner will create a balanced study plan that allocates time for preparing for each test. | ||
| Gauge your readiness with score-predicting mock exams for both the SAT and ACT. See your estimated score for each test and identify key areas for improvement on each one. | ||
| Master content for both exams. Our expert educators use clear visuals and step-by-step strategies to break down the toughest concepts on the ACT and SAT. | ||
| Get our comprehensive print and digital study guides for both the ACT and SAT. These books align perfectly with the video lessons for a fully integrated and organized study system. | ||
| Reinforce your learning after each video lesson. These foundational questions for both ACT and SAT ensure you grasp the core concepts before tackling more difficult, exam-level practice. | ||
| Discover hundreds of unique, bonus practice questions for both the ACT and SAT found only in the printed study guides. These extra problems (not available online) include detailed visual explanations. |
- Master both exams with a comprehensive database of 4200+ questions. Practice items mirror the style of both the SAT and ACT, with clear, visual explanations for every single one.
- Adapt your study plan for both tests. Generate targeted practice exams for the SAT, the ACT, or specific sections from both. It's the most flexible way to prep for both test days.
- Monitor your readiness for each exam in its own unique dashboard. The analytics break down your progress for the SAT and ACT separately, so you can intelligently divide your study time.
- Optimize your prep by tackling SAT and ACT topics individually. Whether it's ACT English or SAT Math, you choose what to study, ensuring no time is wasted on concepts you already know.
- Tell us your schedule and test dates, and our planner will create a balanced study plan that allocates time for preparing for each test.
- Gauge your readiness with score-predicting mock exams for both the SAT and ACT. See your estimated score for each test and identify key areas for improvement on each one.
- Master both exams with a comprehensive database of 4200+ questions. Practice items mirror the style of both the SAT and ACT, with clear, visual explanations for every single one.
- Adapt your study plan for both tests. Generate targeted practice exams for the SAT, the ACT, or specific sections from both. It's the most flexible way to prep for both test days.
- Monitor your readiness for each exam in its own unique dashboard. The analytics break down your progress for the SAT and ACT separately, so you can intelligently divide your study time.
- Optimize your prep by tackling SAT and ACT topics individually. Whether it's ACT English or SAT Math, you choose what to study, ensuring no time is wasted on concepts you already know.
- Tell us your schedule and test dates, and our planner will create a balanced study plan that allocates time for preparing for each test.
- Gauge your readiness with score-predicting mock exams for both the SAT and ACT. See your estimated score for each test and identify key areas for improvement on each one.
- Master content for both exams. Our expert educators use clear visuals and step-by-step strategies to break down the toughest concepts on the ACT and SAT.
- Get our comprehensive print and digital study guides for both the ACT and SAT. These books align perfectly with the video lessons for a fully integrated and organized study system.
- Reinforce your learning after each video lesson. These foundational questions for both ACT and SAT ensure you grasp the core concepts before tackling more difficult, exam-level practice.
- Discover hundreds of unique, bonus practice questions for both the ACT and SAT found only in the printed study guides. These extra problems (not available online) include detailed visual explanations.
Kick off your prep with a free trial!
Explore the SAT QBank and ACT QBank, whether you want a quick review or a full exam deep dive.
Why UWorld Stands Out for ACT Prep
| Feature | UWorld | Other Providers |
|---|---|---|
|
ACT Realism
|
Matches real ACT format, pacing, and difficulty. | Less realistic or generic practice. |
|
Question Bank Depth
|
2,500+ questions for targeted and long-term practice. | Smaller banks limit repetition and focus. |
|
Answer Explanations
|
Step-by-step explanations for deep conceptual learning. | Brief, surface-level, or less instructional explanations. |
|
Custom Practice
|
Custom quizzes by topic, difficulty, and question type. | Standard quizzes make isolating weak areas difficult. |
|
Performance Analytics
|
Detailed analytics track weak spots, pacing & progress. | Less actionable score tracking. |
|
Smart Study Tools
|
Integrated flashcards, study planners, and mobile access. | Limited review tools and mobile accessibility. |
|
Mobile Access
|
Seamless cross-device syncing for studying anywhere. | Mobile learning may lack a unified experience. |
|
Self-Study Fit
|
Structured, self-paced prep for independent students. | Less support for self-guided study. |
ACT Realism
Matches real ACT format, pacing, and difficulty.
Less realistic or generic practice.
Question Bank Depth
2,500+ questions for targeted and long-term practice.
Smaller banks limit repetition and focus.
Answer Explanations
Step-by-step explanations for deep conceptual learning.
Brief, surface-level, or less instructional explanations.
Custom Practice
Custom quizzes by topic, difficulty, and question type.
Standard quizzes make isolating weak areas difficult.
Performance Analytics
Detailed analytics track weak spots, pacing, and progress.
Less actionable score tracking.
Smart Study Tools
Integrated flashcards, study planners, and mobile access.
Fewer integrated review tools or inconvenient mobile access.
Mobile Access
Seamless cross-device syncing for studying anywhere
Mobile learning can feel less connected to the overall study experience.
Self-Study Fit
Structured, self-paced prep for independent students.
Less support for self-guided study.
UWorld ACT QBank FAQs
How is UWorld's ACT Question Bank different from other ACT prep tools?
Most ACT prep tools compete on question volume. UWorld focuses on something more valuable: helping students understand their mistakes, improve their timing, and build real test-taking confidence.
- Step-by-step explanations for every answer choice, correct and incorrect, so students learn the reasoning behind each question
- Strategy-focused content that teaches recurring patterns and problem-solving approaches students can apply across the exam
- Smart study tools including performance analytics, flashcards, and custom quizzes that make it easy to target weak areas
- Questions written by experienced educators and reviewed for accuracy and alignment with the real ACT. No AI-generated content, no unverified third-party material
Free ACT resources can be a starting point, but they rarely provide the feedback, analytics, or realistic practice depth that drives meaningful score improvement. UWorld is built to help students not just practice, but actually get better.
What's included in UWorld's ACT QBank?
UWorld’s ACT QBank gives students everything they need for focused, efficient prep in one place.
- 2,500+ ACT-style practice questions across English, Math, Reading, and Science
- Detailed answer explanations for every correct and incorrect answer choice
- Performance analytics that track strengths, weaknesses, pacing, and overall progress
- Custom quizzes filterable by topic, difficulty, and question type
- Flashcards, My Notebook, and full mobile access so students can study anywhere
Should I get the ACT QBank or the full Course?
Both products are built around the same high-quality question bank and study tools. The right choice depends on what kind of support you need.
- QBank: The best fit for self-studiers who want to practice and review independently. Includes the full 2,500+ question library along with analytics, flashcards, and My Notebook to help you find and fix your weak areas on your own schedule.
- Course: The better fit for students who need structured content instruction before they practice. Includes everything in the QBank, plus 100+ short expert-led video lessons that cover every tested concept, a guided study plan, and a prep book.
If you need to practice and review, the QBank is the right fit. If you need to learn or relearn core content first, choose the Course. Not sure? Start with the free trial to explore the platform before deciding.
How closely does UWorld's ACT QBank align to the real exam?
UWorld’s ACT questions are designed to match the format, pacing, style, and difficulty of the actual test as closely as possible.
- Realistic question styles that mirror the ACT’s English, Math, Reading, and Science formats, including passage types and question structures
- True-to-test pacing through timed practice modes that help students build the speed and endurance required on test day
- Exam-level difficulty that prepares students for the challenge they will face, not an easier version of it
Many students report that the actual ACT felt like another QBank session. That level of familiarity is exactly what UWorld is designed to create.
Who writes UWorld's ACT questions?
UWorld’s ACT questions are written by a team of experienced educators, subject matter experts, and high-scoring test prep professionals who have deep knowledge of how the ACT is structured and scored. Every question and explanation goes through a rigorous review process to ensure accuracy, appropriate difficulty, and alignment with the real exam. UWorld does not use AI-generated questions or unreviewed third-party content. Every item in the QBank is purpose-built to give students a high-quality, trustworthy learning experience.
Can I try the UWorld ACT QBank for free?
Yes. UWorld offers a free trial that gives students hands-on access to the platform before purchasing, with no credit card required.
- Practice with realistic ACT-style questions across multiple sections
- Review detailed, strategy-focused explanations for every answer choice
- Explore the platform’s tools and interface to see how it fits your study style
The free trial is the best way to experience what makes UWorld different before making a decision.
I only have a month before my test. Is the QBank still worth it?
Yes, and in some ways it is especially well-suited for students with limited time. When you cannot afford to waste hours reviewing things you already know, UWorld helps you zero in on what actually needs work.
- Performance analytics quickly surface your weakest areas so you can prioritize the right topics from day one
- Custom quizzes let you concentrate your remaining prep time on high-impact content instead of working through material at random
- Detailed explanations help you learn from every mistake immediately, so you are not repeating the same errors week after week
- Timed practice modes help you sharpen pacing and build the test-day stamina you need to finish each section on time
Students who study consistently and review explanations carefully can see meaningful score improvement in just a few weeks. A focused month of QBank practice is far more effective than unstructured reviewing.
How many ACT practice questions should I do before the exam?
There is no single number that works for every student. What matters more than volume is how you practice.
- Targeted daily review of 20 to 30 questions is more effective than rushing through large sets without reflection
- Studying explanations carefully, especially for questions you got right by guessing, is where most score gains come from
- Using performance analytics regularly helps you stay focused on the topics that will move your score the most
Students who prioritize understanding over quantity consistently improve faster. The goal is not to complete the QBank, it is to get better at the ACT.
What is the fastest way to improve my ACT score?
The fastest path to a higher score combines targeted practice, honest review, and realistic timing. Doing more questions without understanding your mistakes is one of the most common ways students plateau.
- Use performance analytics to identify your weakest topics so you are not spending time on things you already know
- Build custom quizzes around those specific concepts and question types to get focused repetition where it counts
- Review detailed explanations after every session, including the questions you answered correctly, to reinforce the reasoning behind each answer
- Practice under timed conditions regularly so improving your pacing becomes part of your preparation, not an afterthought
Consistent, focused practice combined with honest review is the most reliable way to improve. UWorld is designed to make both easier.
Can I focus my prep on one ACT section at a time?
Yes. UWorld gives you full control over how you practice, so you can build sessions around exactly what you need to work on.
- ACT Math-only quizzes filtered by topic and difficulty
- English grammar drills focused on specific conventions like punctuation, verb agreement, or sentence structure
- Reading comprehension sets organized by passage type and question style
- Science reasoning practice covering data interpretation, experiment analysis, and hypothesis comparison
- Timed or untimed sessions depending on whether you are building accuracy or speed
This level of customization makes it easy to work on your weakest section without losing ground in areas where you are already strong.
What ACT Math topics does UWorld cover?
UWorld covers the full range of math content tested on the ACT, from foundational concepts to more advanced problem types.
- Algebra and Functions: linear equations, inequalities, systems of equations, and function notation
- Advanced Math: quadratic, polynomial, exponential, and logarithmic functions
- Geometry and Trigonometry: angles, triangles, circles, coordinate geometry, and right triangle trigonometry
- Data Analysis and Statistics: ratios, percentages, probability, and interpreting graphs and tables
Students can filter practice by topic, difficulty, and question type at any time, making it easy to focus on the areas that need the most attention.
Does UWorld help with ACT Science?
Yes. UWorld includes a full set of ACT Science practice questions designed to help students interpret data, analyze experiments, and work efficiently under time pressure.
- Data interpretation and graph analysis using charts, tables, and figures similar to those on the real exam
- Scientific reasoning questions based on experiments, including identifying variables and evaluating conclusions
- Hypothesis comparison questions that require students to assess conflicting viewpoints and research summaries
- Pacing strategies to help students manage one of the most time-pressured sections on the ACT
Each explanation breaks down the passage and question logic step by step, helping students build both the analytical skills and the speed they need to perform well on test day.
Does the ACT QBank include a full-length mock exam?
The ACT QBank does not include a full-length mock exam. You can test your skills with a built-in practice test. To gain access to the full-length mock exam, you’ll need to upgrade to the full course.
Are UWorld's ACT questions harder than the real test?
UWorld’s questions are designed to be at or slightly above the difficulty of the actual ACT. Practicing at a slightly elevated level helps students build the skills and confidence they need to handle whatever appears on test day. Many students report that the actual exam felt more manageable than their QBank sessions, which is exactly the outcome UWorld is built to create. Every question, regardless of whether you get it right or wrong, comes with a detailed explanation so you are always learning how to approach the exam more effectively.
How long do I get access to the UWorld ACT QBank?
UWorld ACT QBank access is available for 30, 90, 180, or 360 days, depending on the plan you choose. The 180- and 360-day plans also include a one-time reset.
Are UWorld ACT practice questions harder than the real ACT?
UWorld ACT practice questions are designed to reflect the content, format, and difficulty of the ACT. Some questions may feel more challenging depending on the topic or your familiarity with the skill being tested. Detailed answer explanations help you understand why each answer is right or wrong so you can learn from each question and strengthen your approach.
Meet UWorld's ACT Teachers
Suzanne Dilday
Curriculum Manager
Peter Kenny
Content Developer
Melanie White
Senior Content Developer
Anne Hellerman
Senior Content Developer
Jessica Meyer
Senior Content Developer
Joan Lester
Senior Content Developer
Lauren Stevenson
Senior Content Developer
Rebecca Plourde
Senior Content Developer
Awards & Recognition






























